Friday, May 1, 2009
CCNA lab
CCNA Certification
The Cisco CCNA network associate certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, including implementation and verification of connections to remote sites in a WAN. This new curriculum includes basic mitigation of security threats, introduction to wireless networking concepts and terminology, and performance-based skills. This new curriculum also includes (but is not limited to) the use of these protocols: IP, Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), Serial Line Interface Protocol Frame Relay, Routing Information Protocol Version 2 (RIPv2),VLANs, Ethernet, access control lists (ACLs)
* 1 Console Login * 2 Router Configuration
* 3 Examine the Router
* 4 Copy to a TFTP server
* 5 Copy from TFTP server
* 6a Clear the backup config
* 6b Saving the backup configuration
* 7 Copy to NVRAM
* 8 Initial router configuration
* 9 Initial Switch Configuration
* 10 RIP routing
* 11 IGRP routing
* 12 Create Accesslist
* 13 IPX Access List Security
* 14 IPX router configuration
* 15 IPX SAP filtering
* 16 Limitting VTY address
* 17 Load 2600 OS
* 18 Navigating the IOS
* 19 Password recovery
* 20 Telnet to a remote Router
Monday, April 27, 2009
CCNA4 FINAL 100/100
1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem?
*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?
Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
*Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.
5. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
*boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes
6. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
*CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
*The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
8. Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.)
*It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not be altered once it is implemented.
*It defines a process for managing security violations.
It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization.
*It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
9. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network from reaching the 172.16.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
*interface Fa0/1, outbound
10. Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
*The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2.
11. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
**encapsulation
**encryption
hashing
12. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
**Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.
13. What is the result when the command permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 23 is entered in a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
All traffic from 192.168.4.0/24 larger than 23 bytes is permitted.
FTP traffic from the 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
**Telnet traffic originating from 192.168.4.0/22 is permitted out.
14. What are two major characteristics of a worm? (Choose two.)
**exploits known vulnerabilities
attaches itself to another program
executed by a predefined time or event
masquerades as an accepted program
**copies itself to the host and selects new targets
15. While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
the remote router is a non-Cisco router
the local router is configured with subinterfaces
**broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
16. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT.
Configure static NAT with overload.
**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which DHCP requests will R1 answer?
all DHCP requests that R1 receives
requests that are broadcast to 10.0.1.255
DNS requests with a destination of 10.0.1.3
**requests that are received on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface
requests that come from any networks that are not listed as excluded
18. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
19. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?
The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
**A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.
22. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
**to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers
23. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
**access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache
24. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
**IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.
25. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
**unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure
26. Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.)
**simple flow control
error notification
congestion notification
mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
**exchange of information about the status of virtual circuits
27. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)
**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.
**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.
28. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the CSU/DSU device?
It connects asynchronous devices to a LAN or WAN through network and terminal emulation software.
It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
**It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be transmitted over the analog lines of the public telephone network.
29. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
**demarcation point
demilitarized zone
30. What are two LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose two.)
EAP
**CHAP
IPCP
CDPCP
**stacker
31. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?
DLCI 123
**DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router
32. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
**One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
33. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A network or subnet bit is identified by a “1″ in the wildcard mask.
**IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a “0″ in the wildcard mask.
34. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1″. What is the problem?
The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.
35.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
36. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)
Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.
Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.
**Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases.
**Disable the HTTP server service.
Enable SNMP traps.
37. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
38. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?
proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
**RIP authentication
39. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .
40. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
**The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?
The 10.10.10.75 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses
43. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
**Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
44. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?
application
transport
**network
data link
physical
45. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
**network layer
data link layer
physical layer
46. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
**source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
47. A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router?
All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed.
All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted.
Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted.
**Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed.
48. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
**application layer
49. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
**PPP negotiation failure
50. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?
PPP
SLIP
**HDLC
Frame Relay
*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.
3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?
The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.
4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?
Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
*Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.
5. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
*boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes
6. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
*CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
*The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.
8. Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.)
*It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not be altered once it is implemented.
*It defines a process for managing security violations.
It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization.
*It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
9. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network from reaching the 172.16.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
*interface Fa0/1, outbound
10. Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
*The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2.
11. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
**encapsulation
**encryption
hashing
12. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
**Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.
13. What is the result when the command permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 23 is entered in a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
All traffic from 192.168.4.0/24 larger than 23 bytes is permitted.
FTP traffic from the 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
**Telnet traffic originating from 192.168.4.0/22 is permitted out.
14. What are two major characteristics of a worm? (Choose two.)
**exploits known vulnerabilities
attaches itself to another program
executed by a predefined time or event
masquerades as an accepted program
**copies itself to the host and selects new targets
15. While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
the remote router is a non-Cisco router
the local router is configured with subinterfaces
**broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
16. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT.
Configure static NAT with overload.
**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which DHCP requests will R1 answer?
all DHCP requests that R1 receives
requests that are broadcast to 10.0.1.255
DNS requests with a destination of 10.0.1.3
**requests that are received on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface
requests that come from any networks that are not listed as excluded
18. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
19. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?
The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
**A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.
22. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
**to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers
23. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
**access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache
24. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
**IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.
25. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
**unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure
26. Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.)
**simple flow control
error notification
congestion notification
mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
**exchange of information about the status of virtual circuits
27. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)
**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.
**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.
28. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the CSU/DSU device?
It connects asynchronous devices to a LAN or WAN through network and terminal emulation software.
It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
**It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be transmitted over the analog lines of the public telephone network.
29. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
**demarcation point
demilitarized zone
30. What are two LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose two.)
EAP
**CHAP
IPCP
CDPCP
**stacker
31. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?
DLCI 123
**DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router
32. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
**One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term “inbound” refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
33. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A network or subnet bit is identified by a “1″ in the wildcard mask.
**IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a “0″ in the wildcard mask.
34. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows “DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1″. What is the problem?
The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.
35.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
36. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)
Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.
Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.
**Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases.
**Disable the HTTP server service.
Enable SNMP traps.
37. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
38. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?
proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
**RIP authentication
39. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .
40. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
**The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?
The 10.10.10.75 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses
43. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
**Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.
44. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?
application
transport
**network
data link
physical
45. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows “up, line protocol up”. The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
**network layer
data link layer
physical layer
46. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
**source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address
47. A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router?
All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed.
All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted.
Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted.
**Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed.
48. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
**application layer
49. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?
interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
**PPP negotiation failure
50. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?
PPP
SLIP
**HDLC
Frame Relay
Cisco ccna v4.0 practice
Saturday, April 25, 2009
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 8 (100%)
http://www.ccna4u.net
1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
data link
2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
network analyzer
7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
baselining tool
10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
determining ownership
14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
transport layer
application layer
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
physical
16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
bottom up
17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
application
20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
data link
1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
data link
2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
incorrect clock rate
4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions
5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
network analyzer
7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
baselining tool
10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.
12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
determining ownership
14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
transport layer
application layer
15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
physical
16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
bottom up
17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.
18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.
19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
application
20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
data link
Friday, April 17, 2009
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 7 (100%) -> latest
http://www.ccna4u.net
1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
http://www.ccna4u.net
6. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
8. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
open port 20
open port 21
NAT with port forwarding
9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
10. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
0
11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
access-list statement
12. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?
8
13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
14. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
16. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
172.30.20.2
17. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
static NAT
18. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
64
19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
1. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEthernet0/0 interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?
The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.
2. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?
209.165.20.25
3. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?
16
4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)
It saves public IP addresses.
It adds a degree of privacy and security to a network.
5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?
PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.
http://www.ccna4u.net
6. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?
Use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving S0 as a result of the statement ip nat pool Tampa 179.9.8.96 179.9.8.111 netmask 255.255.255.240? (Choose two.)
179.9.8.98
179.9.8.101
8. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fa0/0 LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)
open port 20
open port 21
NAT with port forwarding
9. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?
Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
10. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broadcast domains exist in this topology?
0
11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?
access-list statement
12. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?
8
13. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?
defines which addresses can be translated
14. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?
Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.
Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.
16. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for HostA to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?
172.30.20.2
17. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?
static NAT
18. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?
64
19. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?
A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.
20. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interfaces, printers, and servers?
The addresses are statically assigned by the network administrator.
CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 6 (100%)
http://www.ccna4u.net/
1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
http://www.ccna4u.net/
6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
encryption
encapsulation
7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
DES
RSA
8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
ESP
9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
DSL
10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
authentication
data confidentiality
data integrity
11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?
a WiMAX receiver
12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
smart cards
13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. Which statement describes cable?
Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
IPsec
PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a remote-access VPN
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
1. Which two Layer 1 requirements are outlined in the Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS)? (Choose two.)
channel widths
modulation techniques
2. Which is an example of symmetric-key encryption?
pre-shared key
3. Which two statements are valid solutions for a cable ISP to reduce congestion for users? (Choose two.)
allocate an additional channel
subdivide the network to reduce users on each segment
4. While monitoring traffic on a cable network, a technician notes that data is being transmitted at 38 MHz. Which statement describes the situation observed by the technician?
Data is being transmitted from the subscriber to the headend.
5. After conducting research to learn about common remote connection options for teleworkers, a network administrator has decided to implement remote access over broadband to establish VPN connections over the public Internet. What is the result of this solution?
The connection has increased security and reliable connectivity. Users need a remote VPN router or VPN client software.
http://www.ccna4u.net/
6. Data confidentiality through a VPN is achieved through which two methods? (Choose two.)
encryption
encapsulation
7. Data confidentiality through a VPN can be enhanced through the use of which three encryption protocols? (Choose three.)
AES
DES
RSA
8. What two protocols provide data authentication and integrity for IPsec? (Choose two.)
AH
ESP
9. A technician has been asked to configure a broadband connection for a teleworker. The technician has been instructed that all uploads and downloads for the connection must use existing phone lines. Which broadband technology should be used?
DSL
10. What are the three main functions of a secure VPN? (Choose three.)
authentication
data confidentiality
data integrity
11. A company is using WiMAX to provide access for teleworkers. What home equipment must the company provide at the teleworker's site?
a WiMAX receiver
12. Which two methods could an administrator use to authenticate users on a remote access VPN? (Choose two.)
digital certificates
smart cards
13. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)
local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)
user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO
14. Which two features can be associated with the Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) telecommunication technology? (Choose two.)
covers areas as large as 7,500 square kilometers
connects directly to the Internet through high-bandwidth connections
15. Refer to the exhibit. All users have a legitimate purpose and the necessary persissions to access the Corporate network. Based on the topology shown, which locations are able to establish VPN connectivity with the Corporate network?
All locations can support VPN connectivity.
16. Which statement describes cable?
Delivering services over a cable network requires downstream frequencies in the 50 to 860 MHz range, and upstream frequencies in the 5 to 42 MHz range.
17. Which two protocols can be used to encapsulate traffic that is traversing a VPN tunnel? (Choose two.)
IPsec
PPTP
18. Refer to the exhibit. A teleworker is connected over the Internet to the HQ Office. What type of secure connection can be established between the teleworker and the HQ Office?
a remote-access VPN
19. Refer to the exhibit. A VPN tunnel has been established between the HQ Office and the Branch Office over the public Internet. Which three mechanisms are required by the devices on each end of the VPN tunnel to protect the data from being intercepted and modified? (Choose three.)
The two parties must establish a secret key used by encryption and hash algorithms.
The two parties must agree on the encryption algorithm to be used over the VPN tunnel.
The devices must be authenticated before the communication path is considered secure.
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