ccna 2 final new version!

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Take Assessment - ERouting Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)

1 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about router R2?

The routing table content indicates that interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.

The route for 172.16.1.0 is a static route.

A packet that is destined for a host on the 172.16.3.0 network is forwarded without performing a routing table lookup.

The packets that are routed to network 172.16.1.0 require two routing table lookups.

2 Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route?

Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.

Compared to EIGRP, RIP has a higher metric value for the route.

Compared to RIP, the EIGRP route has fewer hops.

Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a faster update timer.

3 Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?

It will use the A-D path only.

It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.

It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.

The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

4 Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

CSU/DSU device

DTE device

DCE device

crossover cable

V.35 cable

5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?

10.0.0.0/16 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.5.0.0[90/205891] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 4 subnets

D 10.5.0.0[90/205198] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

10.0.0.0/8 is subnetted, 4 subnets

D 10.5.0.0[90/205001] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

6 Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

Router1

Router2

Router3

Router4

7 A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?

the path learned via EIGRP

the path learned via RIP

the path with the highest metric value

both paths with load balancing

8 Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)

It is saved in the topology table for use if the primary route fails.

It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.

It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.

It is flagged as active in the routing table.

After the discovery process has occurred, the successor route is stored in the neighbor table.

9 Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.

What is the reason for the ping failure?

The serial interface between two routers is down.

R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.

The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.

RIPv1 needs to be configured.

10 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?

192.168.1.0/24

192.168.1.48 /28

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.64/26

11 In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?

D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Serial0/0/0

R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0

I 172.16.1.0/24 [100/1192] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

12 Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?

Include the default-information originate command.

Include the no auto-summary command.

Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.

Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network.

13 What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It forwards data packets toward their destination.

It forwards the packet to the destination if the TTL value is 0.

It changes the destination IP address of data packets before forwarding them to an exit interface.

It determines the best path based on the destination MAC address.

It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.

14 How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?

New routing updates are ignored until the network has converged.

Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.

A route is marked as unavailable when its Time to Live is exceeded.

The unreachable route is cleared from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.

15 Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?

Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.

The link to the ISP will be excluded from the routing protocol process.

A default route must be configured on every router.

The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.

16 Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?

The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.

The router has two interfaces that participate in the RIP process.

The router will forward the updates for 192.168.1.0 on interface Serial0/0/1.

The router is not originating routes for 172.16.1.0.

17 Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?

3

4

5

7

18 Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?

192.168.1.0/24

192.168.0.0/24

192.168.0.0/22

192.168.1.0/22

19 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?

Cisco001

Cisco123

Cisco789

Cisco901

20 Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts can be deduced from the configuration of R1? (Choose two.)

R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.

The administrative distance has been set to 50 on R1.

R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4.0/30.

R1 will forward the EGRP update for subnet 10.10.10.0/30.

Autosummarization must be enabled.

21 A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

The IOS image is corrupt.

Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.

The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

The POST process has detected hardware failure.

22 Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)

The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.

The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.

The router maintains the same source and destination IP.

The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.

The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

23 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?

The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly.

The default route is configured incorrectly.

The default-information originate command must be issued on R1.

Autosummarization must be disabled on R1.

24 Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?

It is a link-state routing protocol.

It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.

It uses the DUAL algorithm to insert backup routes into the topology table.

It uses classless routing as the default method on the router.

25 Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)

Set a lower priority on R2.

Configure the routers in the same area.

Set a lower cost on R2 compared to R1.

Add a backup designated router to the network.

Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

26 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?

The IP address of host A is incorrect.

The default gateway of host A is incorrect.

The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.

The subnet mask for the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect.

27 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.

All routes are stable.

The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

The serial interface between the two routers is down.

Each route has one feasible successor.

28 Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.

Which procedure can resolve this problem?

Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1.

Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1.

Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.

Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2.

29 Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?

split horizon

hold-down timers

route poisoning

triggered updates

30 What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)

The routers must elect a designated router.

The routers must agree on the network type.

The routers must use the same dead interval.

The routers must exchange link state requests.

The routers must exchange database description packets.

31 Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)

DRAM - loads the bootstrap

RAM - stores the operating system

Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup

*NVRAM - stores the configuration file

ROM - stores the backup configuration file

*POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

32 Refer to the exhibit. A ping between the serial interfaces of R1 and R2 is successful, but a ping between their FastEthernet interfaces fails. What is the reason for this problem?

The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.

One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.

The default gateway has not been configured on both routers.

33 Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)

The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.

The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R1.

The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R2.

The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.

The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

34 Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?

IGRP

RIPv1

RIPv2

EIGRP

35 Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)

Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.

The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.

Router1 and Router3 are directly connected.

Six devices are up and running on the network.

Layer 3 functionality between routers is configured properly.

36 Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. Which two static routes can be configured on R1 to enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2

ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1

ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2

37 Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?

Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.

RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

RIPv1 does not support load balancing.

RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.

38 Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)

ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.

ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.

The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.

ABCD does not support switching capability.

39 What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?

It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.

It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.

It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.

40 Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)

The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.

Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.

The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.

Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.

Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.

No default route has been configured.

41 All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID?

The highest MAC address among the active interfaces of the network will be used.

There will be no router ID until a loopback interface is configured.

The highest IP address among the active FastEthernet interfaces that are running OSPF will be used.

The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.

42 Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)

the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface

the highest IP address of any logical interface

the highest IP address of any physical interface

the default gateway IP address

the priority value of 1 on any physical interface

43 Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table.

If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost.

If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol.

44 A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)

It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.

It displays an actual map of the network topology.

It offers rapid convergence in large networks.

*It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.

It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks.

45 Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)

*10.0.0.0/8

64.100.0.0/16

128.107.0.0/16

172.16.40.0/24

192.168.1.0/24

*192.168.2.0/24

46 A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64

A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32

B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

A(config)# no router rip

47 Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?

A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks.

A common metric is used by all routing protocols.

The metric with the highest value is installed in the routing table.

The router may use only one parameter at a time to calculate the metric.

48 Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?

The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.

The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

They have different OSPF router IDs.

They have different process IDs.

49 Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)

It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.

It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.

It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.

It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

50 Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols. Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?

The packets will travel via R2-R1.

The packets will travel via R2-R3.

The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.

The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path.

51 Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency. What action should be taken to solve this problem?

Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.

Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.

Configure the same hello interval between the routers.

Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.

52 Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?

It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.

It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.

It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.

It is the convergence time measured in seconds.

53 Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?

Configure the router ID on both routers.

Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.

Configure a loopback interface on both routers.

Configure the proper subnet masks on the router interfaces.

54 Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network. Which ping will fail?

from R1 to 172.16.1.1

from R1 to 192.168.3.1

from R2 to 192.168.1.1

from R2 to 192.168.3.1

55 Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

*Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.

Routers in a multipoint network that run a link-state protocol can exchange routing tables.

Routers use only hop count for routing decisions.

The shortest path first algorithm is used.

Split horizon is used to avoid routing loops.

56 Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0.

It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol.

It will forward the packet to the default gateway.

57 Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet to R1.

CCNA all answer ~100/100

CCNA1 Chapter 1 CCNA1 Chapter 10 CCNA1 Chapter 11 CCNA1 Chapter 2 CCNA1 Chapter 3 CCNA1 Chapter 4 CCNA1 Chapter 5 CCNA1 Chapter 6 CCNA1 Chapter 7 CCNA1 Chapter 8 CCNA1 Chapter 9 CCNA 1 Final Exam  CCNA3 Chapter 1 CCNA3 Chapter 2 CCNA3 Chapter 3 CCNA3 Chapter 4 CCNA3 Chapter 5 CCNA3 Chapter 6 CCNA3 Chapter 7 CCNA 3 - Final Exam CCNA 3 final test

CCNA2 Chapter 1 CCNA2 Chapter 10 CCNA2 Chapter 11 CCNA2 Chapter 2 CCNA2 Chapter 3 CCNA2 Chapter 4 CCNA2 Chapter 5 CCNA2 Chapter 6 CCNA2 Chapter 7 CCNA2 Chapter 8 CCNA2 Chapter 9 CCNA 2 - Final Exam CCNA4 Chapter 1 CCNA4 Chapter 2 CCNA4 Chapter 3 CCNA4 Chapter 4 CCNA4 Chapter 5 CCNA4 Chapter 6 CCNA4 Chapter 7 CCNA4 Chapter 8 CCNA4 Chapter 9 CCNA 4 - Final Exam

Cisco CCNA1 Final test version 4.0 (91%)

1.

Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C...

Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TSP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5 and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24 . What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?

0040.8596.DE82

**0060.7320.B826

060.7320.D632

0010.4F74.AC09

0040.8596.DE81

2.

Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?

hub
switch
**router
wireless access point

3.

The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?

IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
**IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6
IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35

4. Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
0 to 255
**49152 to 65535
1024 to 49151
0 to 1023

5.

Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
**1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

6. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)

**The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
**The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.
The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)

**Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
**Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.

8.

nslookup command on the PC

Refer to exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server used by the host?

**10.10.10.32
192.168.1.5
192.168.1.99
192.168.2.100

9. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
**255.255.248.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.128

10. Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
**10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
150.0.0.1
**172.16.0.1
**192.168.0.1
200.100.50.1

11.

Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?

Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
**Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81

12. Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
RAM
ROM
flash
**NVRAM

13. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
**It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
**It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.
It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
10.0.0.1
172.16.1.1
**209.165.201.1
192.168.1.1

15.

A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown

Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
10.1.192.2
10.1.192.54
**10.1.192.1
192.31.7.1

16. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
**rollover cable
serial cable

17. A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
**enable
aux
console
VTY

18. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
**Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
**All devices on the media can hear all communications.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
After a collision occurs, the devices that caused the collision have first priority when attempting to retransmit.
**When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.
CSMA/CD uses a token system to avoid collisions.

19. Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
The IP address at the fa0/0 interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
**The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.
The IP address at the serial interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
The hosts in the Accounts office are not on the same subnet as the hosts in the Education office.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
Host A is assigned a network address.
Host B is assigned a multicast address.
Host A and host B belong to different networks.
**The gateway addresses are network addresses.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.
**This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
**The network can have 14 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /25.
The IP address is routable on the Internet.
**The assigned address is a private address.

22. Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)

10 BASE-T
100 BASE-T
100 BASE-FX
**1000 BASE-TX
**1000 BASE-SX

23. Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly.
The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?

Use the description command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Configure the clock rate of the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
**Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Reboot the router.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)

172.16.11.36
172.16.11.95
**172.16.11.88
**172.16.11.70
172.16.11.64
**172.16.11.67

25. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access e-mail. Which destination socket number will be used to communicate this request?
10.10.1.2:53
0007.A7B8.0008:25
10.10.1.3:23
**10.10.1.3:25

26. A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ROM
**NVRAM
RAM
flash

27. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)

Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.
**Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11
The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully
**Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B
Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2

28. How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
It uses error control mechanisms.
**It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple ports.

29. What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
port number
device physical address
**destination host logical address
virtual connection identifier

30. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
switch A, switch D, switch G, host Y
**router B, router E, router F, host Y
switch A, router B, switch D, router E, router F, switch G, host Y
switch A, router B, router F, switch G, host Y

31. While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
Router>
Router#
**Router(config)#
Router(config-line)#

32. An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.224.0
**Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
**ring
point-to-point
multi-access

34. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?

3
**5
7
9
11

35. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
192.168.9.64/28
**192.168.9.146/28
192.168.9.96/28
**192.168.9.129/26
**192.168.9.51/26
192.168.9.64/26

36. Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
The no shutdown command has not been applied to the interfaces.
**The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.
The interface timers are not cleared.
The FastEthernet interface is emulating a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.

37. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
**router
host

38. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)

**The source port indicates that the session is an http session.
The connection is not successful.
**The source port of the host is 3166.
The destination port is 80.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.

39. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?

application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer

40. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
**The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
**The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
**The TCP transport layer protocol provides services to direct the data packets to their destination hosts.
The UDP transport layer protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
The UDP transport layer protocol keeps track of all the data segments in each conversation.

41. To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login
What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
**Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
**The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.
The entries eliminate the need for authentication.
Access through the console will be denied because the console configuration is incomplete.
The entries prevent passwords from being displayed as plain text.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
**Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable

43. Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown.
Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
**transport layer

44. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
It uses the last octet of the IP address to identify the network.
**It supports data communications between networks.
**It is configured by the network technician.
It is a 16-bit IPv4 address.
It prevents broadcasts.
**It uniquely identifies each host.

45. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command.
Use the ipconfig command.
Use the ipconfig/all command.
**Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.

46. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
It will drop the frame.
It will send the frame back to host A.
**It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.
It will forward the frame to the default gateway.

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
The Telnet server process is running on PC1.
Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.
The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.
**The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.

48. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer

49. Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
**It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0

50. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)

**segment 1
segment 2
segment 3
**segment 4
**segment 5
segment 6

CCNA4 FINAL 100/100

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM. After this configuration shown in the exhibit is applied, the SDM interface of the router is still not accessible. What is the cause of the problem?

*The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
The vtys are not configured correctly.


2. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a non-Cisco router that is using IETF encapsulation and Branch B has a Cisco router. After the commands that are shown are entered, R1 and R2 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R1 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?

The PVC to R1 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
The frame relay PVCs cannot be established between Cisco and non-Cisco routers.
*The IETF parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.1 201 command.

3. Refer to the exhibit. An ACL called Managers already exists on this router. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands as shown in the exhibit?

The new ACL overwrites the existing ACL.
The network administrator will receive an error message.
*The existing ACL is modified to include the new command.
A second Managers ACL is created that contains only the new command.

4. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to backup the IOS software on R1 to the TFTP server. He receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit, and cannot ping the TFTP server from R1. What is an action that can help to isolate this problem?

Use correct source file name in the command.
Verify that the TFTP server software is running.
Make sure that there is enough room on the TFTP server for the backup.
*Check that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.

5. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
*boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes

6. Which combination of authentication and Layer 2 protocol should be used to establish a link between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router without sending authentication information in plain text?
CHAP and HDLC
*CHAP and PPP
PAP and HDLC
PAP and PPP

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request that enters interface s0/0/0 and is destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?

The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any command, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then the router drops the packet.
The router reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any any command.
*The router matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 command and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the statement that was created by the access-list 201 permit ip any any command and allows the packet into the router.

8. Which three statements accurately describe attributes of a security policy? (Choose three.)
*It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
It should not be altered once it is implemented.
*It defines a process for managing security violations.
It focuses primarily on threats from outside of the organization.
*It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list on Router1 to prohibit traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network from reaching the 172.16.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?

interface Fa0/0, inbound
interface Fa0/0, outbound
interface Fa0/1, inbound
*interface Fa0/1, outbound

10. Refer to the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?

*The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on Router1 must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on Router2.

11. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
**encapsulation
**encryption
hashing

12. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why company 1 reports higher download speeds than company 2 reports?
Company 1 only uses microfilters at branch locations.
Company 1 has a lower volume of POTS traffic than company 2 has.
**Company 2 is located farther from the service provider than company 1 is.
Company 2 shares the connection to the DSLAM with more clients than company 1 shares with.

13. What is the result when the command permit tcp 192.168.4.0 0.0.3.255 any eq 23 is entered in a named access control list and applied on the inbound interface of a router?
All traffic from 192.168.4.0/24 larger than 23 bytes is permitted.
FTP traffic from the 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
TCP traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/24 network is permitted.
**Telnet traffic originating from 192.168.4.0/22 is permitted out.

14. What are two major characteristics of a worm? (Choose two.)
**exploits known vulnerabilities
attaches itself to another program
executed by a predefined time or event
masquerades as an accepted program
**copies itself to the host and selects new targets

15. While configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used?
the remote router is a non-Cisco router
the local router is configured with subinterfaces
**broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used

16. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT.
Configure static NAT with overload.
**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which DHCP requests will R1 answer?

all DHCP requests that R1 receives
requests that are broadcast to 10.0.1.255
DNS requests with a destination of 10.0.1.3
**requests that are received on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface
requests that come from any networks that are not listed as excluded

18. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.

19. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?

The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
The RIPng network command is missing from the IPv6 RIP configuration.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the Frame Relay connection?

The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
**A congestion control mechanism is enabled on the Frame Relay connection.
The “ACTIVE” status of the Frame Relay connection indicates that the network is experiencing congestion.
Only control FECN and BECN bits are sent over the Frame Relay connection. No data traffic traverses the link.

22. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what is the purpose of Inverse ARP?
to assign a DLCI to a remote peer
to disable peer requests from determining local Layer 3 addresses
to negotiate LMI encapsulations between local and remote Frame Relay peers
**to create a mapping of DLCI to Layer 3 addresses that belong to remote peers

23. When NAT is in use, what is used to determine the addresses that can be translated on a Cisco router?
**access control list
routing protocol
inbound interface
ARP cache

24. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are over-written in favor of the newer technology.
Incorrect IPv4 addresses are entered on the router interfaces.
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
**IPv4 is incompatible with RIPng.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is not able to communicate with its peer that is connected to this interface. Based on the output as shown, what is the most likely cause?

interface reset
**unplugged cable
improper LMI type
PPP negotiation failure

26. Which two functions are provided by the Local Management Interface (LMI) that is used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose two.)
**simple flow control
error notification
congestion notification
mapping of DLCIs to network addresses
**exchange of information about the status of virtual circuits

27. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)

**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
This interface should be configured for PPP encapsulation.
**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the CSU/DSU device?
It connects asynchronous devices to a LAN or WAN through network and terminal emulation software.
It uses a multiport internetworking device to switch traffic such as Frame Relay, ATM, or X.25 over the WAN.
**It provides termination for the digital signal and ensures connection integrity through error correction and line monitoring.
It converts the digital signals produced by a computer into voice frequencies that can be transmitted over the analog lines of the public telephone network.

29. Where does a service provider assume responsibility from a customer for a WAN connection?
local loop
DTE cable on router
**demarcation point
demilitarized zone



30. What are two LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose two.)
EAP
**CHAP
IPCP
CDPCP
**stacker

31. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC router to the Orlando router?

DLCI 123
**DLCI 321
10.10.10.25
10.10.10.26
MAC address of the Orlando router

32. Which two statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose two.)
**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
**One access list per port, per protocol, per direction is permitted.
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
The term "inbound" refers to traffic that enters the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.

33. Which statement is true about wildcard masks?
Inverting the subnet mask will always create the wildcard mask.
The wildcard mask performs the same function as a subnet mask.
A network or subnet bit is identified by a "1" in the wildcard mask.
**IP address bits that must be checked are identified by a "0" in the wildcard mask.

34. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?

The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.

35.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?

frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
frame-relay map ip 192.168.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
frame-relay map ip 192.168.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2

36. What are two effective measures for securing routers? (Choose two.)
Protect all active router interfaces by configuring them as passive interfaces.
Configure remote administration through VTY lines for Telnet access.
**Use quotes or phrases to create pass phrases.
**Disable the HTTP server service.
Enable SNMP traps.

37. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.

38. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?

proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
**RIP authentication

39. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router Router1 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?

Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 172.16.10.10 any eq telnet .

40. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.1 192.168.24.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.
**The DHCP server will not issue the addresses ranging from 192.168.24.1 to 192.168.24.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 192.168.24.1 and 192.168.24.5.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?

The 10.10.10.75 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?

a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses

43. A network administrator has changed the VLAN configurations on his network switches over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
**Conduct a performance test and compare with the baseline that was established previously.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages has improved.
Determine performance on the intranet by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded in previous weeks.

44. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interfaces and ping commands, at which layer of the OSI model is a fault indicated?

application
transport
**network
data link
physical

45. While troubleshooting a problem with an e-mail server, an administrator observes that the switch port used by the server shows "up, line protocol up". The administrator cannot ping the server. At which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely to be found?
application layer
**network layer
data link layer
physical layer

46. Which variable is permitted or denied by a standard access control list?
protocol type
**source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
destination MAC address

47. A technician is editing and reapplying ACL 115 to a router, what is the result of adding the command access-list 115 permit tcp any 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 established to the ACL when it is reapplied to the router?
All traffic that comes from 172.16.0.0/16 will be allowed.
All TCP traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 is permitted.
Any SYN packets that are sent to 172.16.0.0/16 will be permitted.
**Responses to traffic that originates from the 172.16.0.0/16 network are allowed.

48. Because of a remote-procedure call failure, a user is unable to access an NFS server. At what layer of the TCP/IP model does this problem occur?
network layer
data link layer
physical layer
**application layer

49. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?

interface reset
unplugged cable
improper LMI type
**PPP negotiation failure

50. Which encapsulation protocol when deployed on a Cisco router over a serial interface is only compatible with another Cisco router?
PPP
SLIP
**HDLC
Frame Relay