1
Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
*** interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11
interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
2
Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the root bridge?
*** SC
CE
JB
JP
JN
cannot be determined from the information given
3
A switch is operating in VTP client mode. What is true about the operations that can be performed by the switch?
VLANs that are created are not included in advertisements.
*** It can only adopt VLAN changes advertised from a VTP server.
It advertises topology changes out all trunk ports.
It can modify existing VLANs, but can not create new ones.
It can create and modify VLANs, but can not delete existing ones.
4
Why would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.)
*** to prevent routing information from being falsified
to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead
to assure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates
to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing
*** to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source
5
A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?
VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.
VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.
*** VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.
The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.
6
Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?
physical
distribution
data link
*** access
core
7
Refer to the graphic. What will be the result of DR elections in the network presented in the graphic using OSPF? (Choose three.)
RTC will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.
*** RTD will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.
RTA will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.
*** RTD will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.
*** RTB will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.
RTD will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.
8
Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?
VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.
VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.
All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.
*** Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.
9
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
*** RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
*** A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
*** The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.
10
Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?
access
backbone
*** distribution
core
11
A company has been assigned three Class C addresses and requires the use of supernetting in its addressing scheme. Which routing protocol could be used to configure the company routers to support supernetting? (Choose two.)
*** a classless routing protocol
a classful routing protocol
*** OSPF
IGRP
RIP v1
12
Refer to the graphic. What does the mode of FORWARDING mean in the spanning-tree process?
*** The switch is sending and receiving frames.
The switch is receiving frames, but cannot send frames.
The switch is participating in an election process.
The switch is only receiving BPDUs, not data, and is not sending any type of frames.
13
Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has determined that RTRA needs to be the DR because it is the more powerful router. Which of the following commands would be used to control the election process?
RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ospf priority 0
*** RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
*** RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
RTRA(config)# ospf priority 1
RTRA(config)# ip ospf priority 255
RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0
14
Which device provides connectivity between IP routed networks and subnetworks?
switch
bridge
*** router
active hub
15
Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)
*** allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host
requires a minimum of two wires
*** reduces the number of collisions
allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions
*** allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions
increases the number of broadcast domains
16
Refer to the graphic. Both routers are configured using RIP v1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem?
Subnetting is not supported by RIP v1.
One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.
CIDR is not supported by RIP v1.
*** VLSM is not supported by RIP v1.
17
The network administrator shown in the graphic is connected to Switch3 using a LAN Ethernet connection. The administrator needs to verify configuration settings on the newly installed Switch2. What actions must the administrator take to access Switch2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)
Configure the hostname on Switch2.
*** Activate the HTTP service on Switch2.
Set the management VLAN password.
*** Configure IP addressing parameters on Switch2.
*** Establish host connectivity to Switch2.
18
Refer to the graphic. Router A and C are completely configured and the administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on Router B so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which of the following commands configures routing on Router B?
B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192
B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 area 0
B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary
*** B(config)# router eigrp 1
*** B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0
19
Refer to the graphic. If the network is running OSPF, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between Router2 and the other routers shown in the diagram?
192.1.1.4/30 and 192.1.1.8/30
192.1.1.32/30 and 192.1.1.160/30
192.1.1.96/30 and 192.1.1.100/30
192.1.1.160/30 and 192.1.1.164/30
*** 192.1.1.192/30 and 192.1.1.196/30
20
Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)
Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.
Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.
*** Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.
*** Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.
After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.
*** Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.
21
Which command configures the static address shown in the graphic?
Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1
*** Switch1(config)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1
Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04
22
The following command was added to a router's configuration: ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.15.3. What will adding this command accomplish? (Choose two.)
A default route will be created.
*** A static route will be created.
*** Information about the 192.168.20.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as the static route exists.
All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded out interface 192.168.20.245.
The route will be added as a RIP route in the routing table.
23
Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?
physical
data link
core
access
network
*** distribution
24
Which command is used to obtain the information presented in the above graphic?
show vlan ifindex
show vlan id
*** show vlan brief
show running-config
25
Refer to the graphic. Two Catalyst switches with ports configured for VLANs 3 and 4 are connected. The hosts on SW-A and SW-B need to communicate with one another. Which of the following commands is used to configure Port 1 on SW-B? Note that SW-B Port 1 used to have a host connected to it before the switch was connected to SW-A.
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown
(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# vlan 1 trunk
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
*** (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
26
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?
by the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers
by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
by the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers
by comparing known routes to received updates
*** by the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers
by continuously monitoring the status of the router ports
27
What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?
elect a designated switch
use a router to locate a default gateway
*** elect a root bridge
determine the path cost of each active port on the switch
28
Refer to the graphic. Which commands would direct outbound traffic from R1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 200.1.1.0?
R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0. 0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
*** R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
*** ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
29
Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?
cut-through
fast-forward
fragment-free
*** store-and-forward
30
Consider the networks shown in the graphic. Which of the following is the correct configuration for Router B if OSPF is being used as the routing protocol?
B(config)# router ospf 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# router ospf 99
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 area 0
*** B(config)# router ospf 1
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
31
What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?
The switch is going through POST.
The switch is in the process of initializing ports.
The switch has failed POST.
*** The switch has passed POST and is working properly.
32
Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?
highest Layer 2 address
highest priority number
highest path cost
lowest Layer 2 address
*** lowest priority number
lowest path cost
33
A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?
add additional hubs
*** replace hubs with switches
replace hubs with access points
add a router to every hub segment
34
One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which statement is true about this network?
IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.
The autonomous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP autonomous system number.
*** The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.
The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.
The IGRP router will not detect EIGRP routers.
EIGRP is not backward compatible and the IGRP routes will not be detected.
35
Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.)
*** hop count as a metric
classless routing
*** use split horizon
*** maximum hop count is 15
broadcast updates
no authentication
36
When configuring the networks that need to be advertised on a router using EIGRP, which of the following can be configured on the router? (Choose three.)
*** the network number
subnet mask
*** wildcard mask
process number
area ID
*** autonomous system number
37
Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem ｂａｓｅd on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?
The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.
*** The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.
The router is not configured for trunking.
The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.
38
Refer to the graphic above. The network has stabilized and SW-F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. Network traffic indicates that SW-A would be a better selection for the root bridge. How can the network administrator accomplish this task?
change the bridge priority of SW-F to a lower value
change the bridge priority of SW-F to a higher value
*** change the bridge priority of SW-A to a lower value
change the bridge priority of SW-A to a higher value
39
Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands is used to configure switch port 2 for the host on VLAN 2?
*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
*** (config-if)# switchport mode access
*** (config-if)# switchport access vlan 2
(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode access 2
(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q
(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
(config-if)# vlan 2
40
Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)
*** They can support multiple routed protocols.
They can support only link-state protocols.
They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.
*** They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.
They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.
*** They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.
41
A network administrator located at the East site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Corporate site. The show hosts command is entered on the East router but does not produce any output. Which command can be used to gain access to the Corporate LAN switch assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 172.16.15.5/24?
dial Corporate 172.16.15.5
line vty 0 4
telnet
telnet Corporate
*** telnet 172.16.15.5
42
What is an advantage of building a network such as the one shown in the graphic?
*** provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure
provides alternate routes when spanning tree has a problem
provides alternate network routes when the Spanning Tree Protocol is converging
provides concurrent paths for faster data transfers
43
What type of connectivity (refer to point A in the graphic) is required between SW1 and SW2? Note that SW1 has VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 configured and SW2 has VLANs 5, 6, 7, and 8 configured. Also, the computers on the same VLAN need the ability to communicate with one another.
access
channel
interVLAN
intraVLAN
*** trunk
44
Refer to the graphic and the following configurations from the routers. Router A is not receiving any OSPF routes from the other routers. ｂａｓｅd on the Router A and Router B configurations, what is the problem?
A# show running-config
--output omitted--
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.65 255.255.255.192
interface Serial 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
B# show running-config
--output omitted--
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.129 255.255.255.192
interface Serial0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.10.5 255.255.255.252
clockrate 56000
router ospf 2
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 0
*** duplicate IP address
mismatched OSPF process IDs
mismatched OSPF timers
mismatched clock rates
45
Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B are running EIGRP and Router C is running IGRP. Which of the following is necessary for Router C to automatically see routes from Routers A and B?
Routers B and C must use the same autonomous system number, but Router A can use a different autonomous system number.
*** Routers A, B, and C must all use the same autonomous system number.
Routers B and C must both use the redistribute igrp as_number command.
No commands are necessary. EIGRP routes are always seen by IGRP routers.
46
Which of the following is true about Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)
eliminates physical loops in network topologies
*** eliminates logical loops in network topologies
can only be used in networks where routers are installed
*** can only be used in networks where switches are incorporated into the design
can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used
47
A company with the address 192.168.3.0 needs an address scheme that supports ten networks with a maximum of seven hosts per segment. The network administrator wants to use VLSM for the most efficient use of addresses. What is a valid address to assign to one of the LAN links?
192.168.3.192
*** 192.168.3.209
192.168.3.223
192.168.3.225
192.168.3.235
48
Which of the following commands can be used to configure the default management VLAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown
*** (config)# interface vlan 1
*** (config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
*** (config-subif)# no shutdown
(config)# interface management vlan
(config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown
(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# switchport mode vlan 1
(config-if)# no shutdown
49
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
when a router has more than three active interfaces
*** when a router has discontiguous networks attached
when a router has less than five active interfaces
50
Consider the network shown in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses would be valid for a company that is leasing a single Class C network address and using VLSM for maximum efficiency?
200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.176 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.196 /30 for the second pair of serial links
200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.80 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.96 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.128 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.132 /30 for the second pair of serial links
*** 200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
*** 200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
*** 200.1.1.160 /28 for the 10 users
*** 200.1.1.176 /30 for one pair of serial links
*** 200.1.1.180 /30 for the second pair of serial links
200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.64 /26 for the 25 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.192 /30 for the second pair of serial links
Wednesday, March 25, 2009
Tuesday, March 24, 2009
ccna 2 final new version!
Help me answer this version. Thanks !
Take Assessment - ERouting Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)
1 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about router R2?
The routing table content indicates that interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.
The route for 172.16.1.0 is a static route.
A packet that is destined for a host on the 172.16.3.0 network is forwarded without performing a routing table lookup.
The packets that are routed to network 172.16.1.0 require two routing table lookups.
2 Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route?
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.
Compared to EIGRP, RIP has a higher metric value for the route.
Compared to RIP, the EIGRP route has fewer hops.
Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a faster update timer.
3 Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?
It will use the A-D path only.
It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.
It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.
The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.
4 Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
CSU/DSU device
DTE device
DCE device
crossover cable
V.35 cable
5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?
10.0.0.0/16 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205891] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 4 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205198] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
10.0.0.0/8 is subnetted, 4 subnets
D 10.5.0.0[90/205001] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0
6 Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
Router1
Router2
Router3
Router4
7 A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?
the path learned via EIGRP
the path learned via RIP
the path with the highest metric value
both paths with load balancing
8 Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)
It is saved in the topology table for use if the primary route fails.
It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.
It is flagged as active in the routing table.
After the discovery process has occurred, the successor route is stored in the neighbor table.
9 Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.
What is the reason for the ping failure?
The serial interface between two routers is down.
R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.
The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.
RIPv1 needs to be configured.
10 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.1.48 /28
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.64/26
11 In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?
D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1,
O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1,
R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1,
I 172.16.1.0/24 [100/1192] via 192.168.200.1,
12 Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?
Include the default-information originate command.
Include the no auto-summary command.
Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.
Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network.
13 What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It forwards data packets toward their destination.
It forwards the packet to the destination if the TTL value is 0.
It changes the destination IP address of data packets before forwarding them to an exit interface.
It determines the best path based on the destination MAC address.
It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.
14 How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?
New routing updates are ignored until the network has converged.
Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.
A route is marked as unavailable when its Time to Live is exceeded.
The unreachable route is cleared from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
15 Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?
Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.
The link to the ISP will be excluded from the routing protocol process.
A default route must be configured on every router.
The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.
16 Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?
The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.
The router has two interfaces that participate in the RIP process.
The router will forward the updates for 192.168.1.0 on interface Serial0/0/1.
The router is not originating routes for 172.16.1.0.
17 Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?
3
4
5
7
18 Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?
192.168.1.0/24
192.168.0.0/24
192.168.0.0/22
192.168.1.0/22
19 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?
Cisco001
Cisco123
Cisco789
Cisco901
20 Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts can be deduced from the configuration of R1? (Choose two.)
R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.
The administrative distance has been set to 50 on R1.
R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4.0/30.
R1 will forward the EGRP update for subnet 10.10.10.0/30.
Autosummarization must be enabled.
21 A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
The IOS image is corrupt.
Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.
The POST process has detected hardware failure.
22 Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.
23 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?
The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly.
The default route is configured incorrectly.
The default-information originate command must be issued on R1.
Autosummarization must be disabled on R1.
24 Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?
It is a link-state routing protocol.
It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.
It uses the DUAL algorithm to insert backup routes into the topology table.
It uses classless routing as the default method on the router.
25 Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)
Set a lower priority on R2.
Configure the routers in the same area.
Set a lower cost on R2 compared to R1.
Add a backup designated router to the network.
Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.
26 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?
The IP address of host A is incorrect.
The default gateway of host A is incorrect.
The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.
The subnet mask for the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect.
27 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.
All routes are stable.
The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.
The serial interface between the two routers is down.
Each route has one feasible successor.
28 Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.
Which procedure can resolve this problem?
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1.
Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1.
Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.
Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2.
29 Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?
split horizon
hold-down timers
route poisoning
triggered updates
30 What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
The routers must elect a designated router.
The routers must agree on the network type.
The routers must use the same dead interval.
The routers must exchange link state requests.
The routers must exchange database description packets.
31 Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
DRAM - loads the bootstrap
RAM - stores the operating system
Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
*NVRAM - stores the configuration file
ROM - stores the backup configuration file
*POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules
32 Refer to the exhibit. A ping between the serial interfaces of R1 and R2 is successful, but a ping between their FastEthernet interfaces fails. What is the reason for this problem?
The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.
One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.
A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.
The default gateway has not been configured on both routers.
33 Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R2.
The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.
The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.
34 Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?
IGRP
RIPv1
RIPv2
EIGRP
35 Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)
Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.
The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.
Router1 and Router3 are directly connected.
Six devices are up and running on the network.
Layer 3 functionality between routers is configured properly.
36 Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. Which two static routes can be configured on R1 to enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2
ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1
ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2
37 Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?
Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.
RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.
RIPv1 does not support load balancing.
RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.
38 Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)
ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.
ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.
The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.
R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.
ABCD does not support switching capability.
39 What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?
It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.
It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.
It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.
It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.
40 Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
No default route has been configured.
41 All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID?
The highest MAC address among the active interfaces of the network will be used.
There will be no router ID until a loopback interface is configured.
The highest IP address among the active FastEthernet interfaces that are running OSPF will be used.
The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.
42 Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)
the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface
the highest IP address of any logical interface
the highest IP address of any physical interface
the default gateway IP address
the priority value of 1 on any physical interface
43 Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.
If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table.
If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost.
If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol.
44 A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)
It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.
It displays an actual map of the network topology.
It offers rapid convergence in large networks.
*It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.
It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks.
45 Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
*10.0.0.0/8
64.100.0.0/16
128.107.0.0/16
172.16.40.0/24
192.168.1.0/24
*192.168.2.0/24
46 A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip
47 Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?
A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks.
A common metric is used by all routing protocols.
The metric with the highest value is installed in the routing table.
The router may use only one parameter at a time to calculate the metric.
48 Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?
The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.
The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.
They have different OSPF router IDs.
They have different process IDs.
49 Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)
It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.
It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.
It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.
It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.
It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.
50 Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols. Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?
The packets will travel via R2-R1.
The packets will travel via R2-R3.
The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.
The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path.
51 Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency. What action should be taken to solve this problem?
Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.
Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.
Configure the same hello interval between the routers.
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.
52 Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?
It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.
It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
It is the convergence time measured in seconds.
53 Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?
Configure the router ID on both routers.
Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.
Configure a loopback interface on both routers.
Configure the proper subnet masks on the router interfaces.
54 Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network. Which ping will fail?
from R1 to 172.16.1.1
from R1 to 192.168.3.1
from R2 to 192.168.1.1
from R2 to 192.168.3.1
55 Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
*Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.
Routers in a multipoint network that run a link-state protocol can exchange routing tables.
Routers use only hop count for routing decisions.
The shortest path first algorithm is used.
56 Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0.
It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol.
It will forward the packet to the default gateway.
57 Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.
It will forward the packet to R1.
Monday, March 23, 2009
CCNA all answer ~100/100
Thursday, March 19, 2009
Cisco CCNA1 Final test version 4.0 (91%)
1.
Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C...
Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TSP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of router Y. The packet inside the captured frame has the IP source address 172.16.1.5 and the destination IP address is 172.16.7.24 . What is the source MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
0040.8596.DE82
**0060.7320.B826
060.7320.D632
0010.4F74.AC09
0040.8596.DE81
2.
Refer to the exhibit. An employee wants to access the organization intranet from home. Which intermediary device should be used to connect the organization intranet to the Internet to enable this access?
hub
switch
**router
wireless access point
3.
The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?
Refer to the exhibit. The host was disconnected from switch 2 and connected to switch 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway should be assigned to this host to allow it to function in the network?
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
**IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
IP address: 10.10.9.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 196.1.105.6
IP address: 10.10.9.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 10.10.9.35
4. Which range of port numbers is assigned dynamically to client applications when initiating a connection to the server?
0 to 255
**49152 to 65535
1024 to 49151
0 to 1023
5.
Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
**1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
6. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a network, a technician wired each end of a Category 5e cable as shown. Which two statements are true about this setup? (Choose two.)
**The cable is suitable for connecting a switch to a router Ethernet port.
**The cable is suitable for connecting dissimilar types of devices.
The cable is unusable and must be rewired.
The cable is terminated in a way that the transmit pin is wired to the receive pin.
The cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
**Four collision domains are present.
One logical network is represented.
**Two broadcast domains are present.
Three networks are needed.
Three logical address ranges are required.
8.
nslookup command on the PC
Refer to exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server used by the host?
**10.10.10.32
192.168.1.5
192.168.1.99
192.168.2.100
9. Which subnet mask will allow 2040 hosts per subnet on the IP network 10.0.0.0?
255.255.0.0
255.255.254.0
255.255.252.0
**255.255.248.0
255.255.240.0
255.255.255.128
10. Which three addresses belong to the category of private IP addresses? (Choose three.)
**10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
150.0.0.1
**172.16.0.1
**192.168.0.1
200.100.50.1
11.
Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. Which address combination will be used as the data leaves the Router1 Fa0/1 interface?
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
**Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81
Destination IP: 192.168.10.4 Source MAC: 0007.C2B4.3421
Destination IP: 192.168.72.2 Source MAC: 0030.8596.DE81
12. Which memory contents will change as a result of using the Router# erase startup-config command on a router?
RAM
ROM
flash
**NVRAM
13. What are two characteristics of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
**It segments and reorders the data.
It exchanges the frames between nodes.
**It defines the method by which network devices place data onto the media.
It manages the transfer of data between the processes that run on each host.
It retrieves signals from the media and restores them to their bit representations.
14. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide the PC with Internet access. Which IP address can be assigned to router interface Fa0/0?
10.0.0.1
172.16.1.1
**209.165.201.1
192.168.1.1
15.
A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown
Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to access the Internet from the PC. A part of the running configuration of the router is shown. Which default gateway IP address should be configured at the PC to enable this access?
10.1.192.2
10.1.192.54
**10.1.192.1
192.31.7.1
16. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician wants to connect host A to the console of a Cisco switch to initialize the configuration. What type of cable is required for this connection?
straight-through cable
crossover cable
**rollover cable
serial cable
17. A network administrator wants to restrict access to the router privileged EXEC mode. Which password should the administrator use?
**enable
aux
console
VTY
18. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
**Devices listen to the media and transmit data only when they cannot detect another signal on the media.
**All devices on the media can hear all communications.
Devices communicate based on a configured priority.
After a collision occurs, the devices that caused the collision have first priority when attempting to retransmit.
**When a collision occurs, all devices stop transmitting for a randomly generated period of time.
CSMA/CD uses a token system to avoid collisions.
19. Refer to the exhibit. The router of the company failed and was replaced. After the replacement, hosts C and D in the Education office are able to ping each other, but they are unable to access the hosts in the Accounts office. What is the likely cause of the problem?
The IP address at the fa0/0 interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
**The subnet mask at the fa0/1 interface of the router is incorrectly entered.
The IP address at the serial interface of the router is incorrectly configured.
The hosts in the Accounts office are not on the same subnet as the hosts in the Education office.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Host A and B are unable to communicate with each other. What is the reason for this?
Host A is assigned a network address.
Host B is assigned a multicast address.
Host A and host B belong to different networks.
**The gateway addresses are network addresses.
21. Refer to the exhibit. A user wants to view the current configuration. The output of the ipconfig/all command is displayed in the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the output? (Choose three.)
The IP address is obtained from the DHCP server.
**This PC cannot communicate with other networks.
**The network can have 14 hosts.
The prefix of the computer address is /25.
The IP address is routable on the Internet.
**The assigned address is a private address.
22. Which two types of media can provide bandwidth up to 1 Gb/s? (Choose two.)
10 BASE-T
100 BASE-T
100 BASE-FX
**1000 BASE-TX
**1000 BASE-SX
23. Refer to the exhibit. RouterB is configured properly.
The Ethernet interface Fa0/0 of RouterA is configured with the use of the commands that are shown However, a ping from the Fa0/0 interface of RouterA to the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB is unsuccessful. What action should be taken on RouterA to solve this problem?
Configure the clock rate of the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
**Use the no shutdown command on the FastEthernet interface Fa0/0.
Reboot the router.
24. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to connect to host B on a different network. Which three IP addresses can be assigned to host A to enable this connectivity? (Choose three.)
172.16.11.36
172.16.11.95
**172.16.11.88
**172.16.11.70
172.16.11.64
**172.16.11.67
10.10.1.2:53
0007.A7B8.0008:25
10.10.1.3:23
**10.10.1.3:25
26. A network administrator uses the copy startup-config running-config command on a router to make configuration changes. Which component is affected by this command?
ROM
**NVRAM
RAM
flash
27. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, Hosts A and B are exchanging segments at the transport layer. Which two statements are true about this exchange? (Choose two.)
Host A is transferring files to host B using FTP.
**Host A will send the next segment containing data for this session starting with byte number 11
The segment from the destination host indicates that 11 bytes have been received successfully
**Host A is initiating a Telnet session to host B
Host B can send the next segment of the data starting with byte number 2
28. How does the transport layer allow a host to maintain multiple, simultaneous communication streams across different applications?
It uses error control mechanisms.
**It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
It uses multiple ports.
29. What information is contained in the header of Layer 3 to help data delivery?
port number
device physical address
**destination host logical address
virtual connection identifier
30. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command used from host X to host Y was successful. What is the correct sequence of intermediary network devices that will be present in the trace list?
switch A, switch D, switch G, host Y
**router B, router E, router F, host Y
switch A, router B, switch D, router E, router F, switch G, host Y
switch A, router B, router F, switch G, host Y
31. While configuring a router, a network technician wants to name the router. Which prompt should the technician see when entering the hostname command?
Router>
Router#
**Router(config)#
Router(config-line)#
32. An organization has decided to use IP addresses in the range 172.20.128.0 to 172.20.143.255. Which combination of network ID and subnet mask identifies all IP addresses in this range?
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.0.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.224.0
**Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.240.0
Network ID: 172.20.128.0 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240
33. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
star
**ring
point-to-point
multi-access
34. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many broadcast domains are there in this topology?
3
**5
7
9
11
35. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid network addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
192.168.9.64/28
**192.168.9.146/28
192.168.9.96/28
**192.168.9.129/26
**192.168.9.51/26
192.168.9.64/26
36. Two routers are connected via their serial ports in a lab environment. The routers are configured with valid IP addresses, but they cannot ping each other. The show interface serial0/0 command shows that the serial0/0 interface is up but the line protocol is down. What could be the cause of this problem?
The no shutdown command has not been applied to the interfaces.
**The clock rate command has not been entered on the DCE interface.
The interface timers are not cleared.
The FastEthernet interface is emulating a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
37. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?
switch
hub
**router
host
38. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator uses the netstat command to display the open, active, and running TCP connections on a networked host. The exhibit displays the output of this command. Which two facts can be determined from this output for accessing www.cisco.com? (Choose two.)
**The source port indicates that the session is an http session.
The connection is not successful.
**The source port of the host is 3166.
The destination port is 80.
The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
The source port indicates that a UDP session has been initiated.
39. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer
40. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
The UDP transport layer protocol provides for low overhead data delivery.
**The TCP transport layer protocol uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
**The TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
**The TCP transport layer protocol provides services to direct the data packets to their destination hosts.
The UDP transport layer protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
The UDP transport layer protocol keeps track of all the data segments in each conversation.
41. To enhance security in a network, the network administrator uses these commands:
Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password j1mdi2
Router(config-line)# login
What two conclusions are evident from these commands? (Choose two.)
**Users who attempt to connect to the console port of the router must enter a password.
**The entries permit access through the console by the use of j1mdi2 as the password.
The entries eliminate the need for authentication.
Access through the console will be denied because the console configuration is incomplete.
The entries prevent passwords from being displayed as plain text.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
**Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
43. Refer to the exhibit. The headers added at each layer are shown.
Which layer adds the destination and source process numbers to ensure that data is delivered to the correct application?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
**transport layer
44. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
It uses the last octet of the IP address to identify the network.
**It supports data communications between networks.
**It is configured by the network technician.
It is a 16-bit IPv4 address.
It prevents broadcasts.
**It uniquely identifies each host.
45. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is connected to a network. Which action will verify that the PC can communicate with its default gateway?
Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command.
Use the ipconfig command.
Use the ipconfig/all command.
**Use the ping 10.0.0.254 command.
46. Refer to the exhibit. Host A sends a frame with the destination MAC address as FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. What action will the switch take for this frame?
It will drop the frame.
It will send the frame back to host A.
**It will send the frame to all hosts except host A.
It will forward the frame to the default gateway.
47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1 using a secure connection. Which statement is true about this connection?
The Telnet server process is running on PC1.
Only the exchange of the Telnet username and password is encrypted.
The GET request is sent to RouterA to retrieve data.
**The SSH service is used to connect PC1 to RouterB.
48. Which OSI layer uses the header information to reassemble the data segments into streams?
application layer
network layer
presentation layer
session layer
**transport layer
49. Refer to the exhibit. A router, the table of which is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.9.4. How will the router treat the packet?
It will drop the packet.
It will forward the packet via FastEthernet 0/1.
**It will forward the packet to the next hop address.
It will forward the packet to 172.16.2.0
50. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable that connects the network components on that segment. Which three segments have the correct cables installed? (Choose three.)
**segment 1
segment 2
segment 3
**segment 4
**segment 5
segment 6
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