1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment
replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN
2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
hold-down timers
poison reverse
• spanning tree protocol
time to live
split horizon protocol
4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols
5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco
6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
low processor overhead
poison reverse
routing loops
split horizon
• shortest-path first calculations
7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
The configuration register is set for 0x2100.
The configuration register is set for 0x2101.
The configuration register is set for 0x2102.
• The configuration register is set for 0x2142.
Boot system commands are not configured.
Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
Nederst på formularen
8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
• show ip interface
show ip route
show processes
• show running-config
show cdp neighbor
• show access-lists
9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
destination address and wildcard mask
• source address and wildcard mask
subnet mask and wildcard mask
access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999
10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
most
• host
all
• any
some
sum
11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
3 collision domains
• 3 broadcast domains
5 broadcast domains
• 9 collision domains
10 collision domains
13 collision domains
12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
192.168.16.63/27
192.168.16.158/27
192.168.16.192/27
192.168.16.113/30
192.168.16.145/30
• 192.168.16.193/30
13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• prevents Layer 2 loops
prevents routing loops on a router
creates smaller collision domains
creates smaller broadcast domains
allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
activates the OSPF neighboring process
• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
streamlines and speeds up the convergence process
15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding
16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?
Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255
17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
EIGRP
OSPF
• RIP v1
RIP v2
• IGRP
18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?
SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full
SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full
SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex
19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
EIGRP does not support VLSM.
The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.
20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully
21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
local router
local Frame Relay switch
• remote router
• remote Frame Relay switch
R3 has the following configuration:
R3# show running-config
--some output text omitted--
interface serial0/0
bandwidth 128
ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
encapsulation frame-relay
frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast
22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
• No clock rate assigned.
There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword
23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
The LMI type must always be manually configured.
The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE
24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured
25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.
Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR
26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
show interface bri0/0
show isdn active
debug isdn q921
• debug isdn q931
debug ppp negotiation
debug ppp authentication
27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection
28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
establishes identities with a two-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks
makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session
29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link
30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
192.168.14.8
• 192.168.14.16
192.168.14.24
• 192.168.14.32
192.168.14.148
• 192.168.14.208
31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
• 1) fast forward
2) fragment free
3) store-and-forward
1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward
1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward
1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free
32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
Øverst på formularen
33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config)# router ospf
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0
35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
TCP
• RIP
CSMA/CD
Ethernet
36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
a router with a serial interface
a router with an S/T interface
• a router with a U interface
an ISDN terminal adapter
37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device
38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
• data transport reliability
best path determination
• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
best-effort datagram delivery
39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
• This command is used to define a static route
40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• FTP
SNMP
• HTTP
TFTP
DHCP
41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
• BECN
DLCI
• DE
• FECN
LMI
Inverse ARP
42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
Router# show ip interfaces brief
• Router# show ip route
Router# show cdp neighbors
Router# show running-config
Router# show protocols
43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
router table
• topology table
DUAL table
CAM table
ARP table
44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• serial interface on router A
serial interface on router B
45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
• the loopback with the highest IP address configured
the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces
46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
172.0.0.0
172.16.134.0
• 172.16.134.32
172.16.134.48
172.16.134.47
172.16.134.63
47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
• Router# show ip protocols
Router# show version
Router# show interfaces
Router# show ip updates
• Router# show ip route
48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
IP addresses
subnet masks
• port numbers
routed protocols
routing protocols
interfaces
49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
This is a useable host address.
This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
This is not a valid address
50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240
Monday, December 1, 2008
CCNA4 FINAL (New 3)
1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
• port address translation
2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
ip nat inside Raleigh overload
ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh
3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
static
dynamic
• overload
private
public
4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29
5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.
6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
DHCP uses TCP.
DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.
7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access
9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding
10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
terminal adapter
modem
• CSU/DSU
PBX switch
ISDN switch
Frame Relay Switch
11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.
12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
HDLC
IPCP
LAPB
• LAPD
NCP
SS7
13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
X.25
DSL
• ATM
ISDN BRI
ISDN PRI
14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.
15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
It is less expensive.
It provides faster connection time.
It provides less latency and jitter.
16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
DLCI
CO
• DCE
DTE
PRI
BRI
17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.
18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.
19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
adapts information for use on a service provider's network
used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network
20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.
21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
router
• CSU/DSU
ISDN Switch
Frame Relay Switch
22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
• Multilink
23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
username tampa florida
hostname tampa password florida
hostname tampa florida
24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
sends a random challenge throughout the session
25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
to translate domain names into IP addresses
to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices
26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.
27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
exchange of call setup and teardown messages
PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
protocol errors and statistics
Layer 2 messages on the B channel
29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
the enable password on the remote device
the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device
30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
2
16
• 23
24
30
128
31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000
32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
• DLCI 200
33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
The encapsulation type is Cisco.
The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
The LMI type is Cisco.
34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol
35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
110
115
220
• 225
36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay interface
show interfaces
show ip route
37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
serial cable missing
interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing
38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.
39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.
40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).
There is currently no congestion on the link.
41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
provide error notification
provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC
42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.
43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake
44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider's network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuit-switched
• packet-switched
frame-switched
dedicated-switched lines
lease-switched
45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.
routable translation
dynamic translation
static translation
• port address translation
2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
ip nat inside Raleigh overload
ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh
3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
static
dynamic
• overload
private
public
4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29
5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.
6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
DHCP uses TCP.
DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.
7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access
9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
show ip dhcp server statistics
show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
debug ip dhcp binding
10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
terminal adapter
modem
• CSU/DSU
PBX switch
ISDN switch
Frame Relay Switch
11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.
12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
HDLC
IPCP
LAPB
• LAPD
NCP
SS7
13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
X.25
DSL
• ATM
ISDN BRI
ISDN PRI
14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.
15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
It is less expensive.
It provides faster connection time.
It provides less latency and jitter.
16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
DLCI
CO
• DCE
DTE
PRI
BRI
17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.
18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
Nothing. The router is already suitable.
Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.
19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
adapts information for use on a service provider's network
used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network
20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.
21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
router
• CSU/DSU
ISDN Switch
Frame Relay Switch
22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
• Multilink
23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
username tampa florida
hostname tampa password florida
hostname tampa florida
24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
sends a random challenge throughout the session
25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
to translate domain names into IP addresses
to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices
26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.
27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
exchange of call setup and teardown messages
PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
protocol errors and statistics
Layer 2 messages on the B channel
29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
the enable password on the remote device
the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device
30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
2
16
• 23
24
30
128
31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
Windows 98
Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000
32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
• DLCI 200
33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
The encapsulation type is Cisco.
The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
The LMI type is Cisco.
34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
Logical Link Control
Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
Binary Synchronous Control protocol
35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
110
115
220
• 225
36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay interface
show interfaces
show ip route
37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
serial cable missing
interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing
38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.
39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.
40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).
There is currently no congestion on the link.
41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
provide error notification
provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC
42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.
PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.
43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails
initiates a two-way handshake
44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider's network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
circuit-switched
• packet-switched
frame-switched
dedicated-switched lines
lease-switched
45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.
46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.
A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.
CCNA4 FINAL (New 2)
1. A technician has been asked to run Cisco SDM one-step lockdown on the router of a customer. What will be the result of this process?
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.
2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
**The vtys are not configured correctly.
3. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?
The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
**The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.
4. What is a major characteristic of a worm?
malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
tricks users into running the infected software
a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
**exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network
5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?
The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.
6. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?
Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.
Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.
Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.
**Company A is closer to the service provider.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.
**It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)
This network is experiencing congestion.
**The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
Data is not flowing in this network.
**The network is discarding eligible packets.
The DLCI is globally significant.
9. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses
11. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
12. An established company has recently transitioned from outsourced LAN support to a completely in-house staff. The outsourcing company is no longer in business, so no records are available. There are many user complaints about application speed and availability. What two considerations apply to this situation? (Choose two.)
A network utilization baseline should quickly reveal application availability.
A period of 24 to 48 hours should provide a sufficient baseline to track normal network activity.
It is easier to start with monitoring all available data inputs on application servers, and then fine-tune to fewer variables along the way.
The initial baseline results have little relevance to current values after the network has been modified or grown in usage.
**When it is practical, network administrators should attempt to automate the collection of performance data and stay away from manual collection.
**Creating a network baseline data helps determine device thresholds for alerting.
13. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?
PPP with PAP
**PPP with CHAP
HDLC with PAP
HDLC with CHAP
14. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
**application layer
15. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)
when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
**when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
**when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
16. Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
**One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
**Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.
The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
17. Which technology would provide the highest bandwidth connections between company sites at the lowest cost?
**broadband Internet site-to-site VPN connections
satellite based network connections
dedicated point-to-point circuits
Frame Relay PVCs
18. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?
improper LMI type
interface reset
**PPP negotiation failure
unplugged cable
19. What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
**A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
**A modem terminates an analog local loop.
**A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
20. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
**The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.
The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.
22. Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?
The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.
The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.
**A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.
A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.
23. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
**DLCI 200
24 .A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?
lower cost
lower latency and jitter
**variable bandwidth capacity
fewer physical router interfaces
25. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?
proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
**RIP authentication
26. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
27. Which statement about a VPN is true?
VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.
DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.
**VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.
Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.
28. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .
29. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?
The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.
**The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.
The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.
The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.
30. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)
**It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
**It defines a process for managing security violations.
**It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
31. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
The clock rate must be 56000.
**The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.
32. What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?
All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.
The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.
All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.
**Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.
33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
**boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes
34. A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
**A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.
35. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?
application
transport
network
**data link
physical
36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface fa0/0/0, inbound
interface fa0/0/0, outbound
interface fa0/0/1, inbound
**interface fa0/0/1, outbound
37. Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
SSH is unable to pass through NAT.
**There are incorrect access control list entries.
The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.
The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.
38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)
**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
Encapsulation should of this inteface be changed to PPP.
**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.
39. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?
Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2
Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2
**Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2
Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2
40. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.
**RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.
41. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?
Wi-Fi
WiMAX
**satellite
Metro Ethernet
42. A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
**Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.
Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?
From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.
From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.
From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.
**From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.
44. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?
**defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network
45. A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches.
Which statement applies to this situation?
**Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.
Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.
It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
46. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
**172.30.20.1:3333
192.168.1.2:80
47. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
Once a good password is created, do not change it.
**Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
**Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
**Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.
48. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
**The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
49. Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)
**Security options are build into IPv6.
IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.
IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.
There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.
**When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.
50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng network command is not configured.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
51. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
**demarcation point
local loop
cloud
52. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?
The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.
53. Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
**exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
**map DLCIs to network addresses
provide flow control
provide error notification
provide congestion notification
**send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC
54. Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
**CHAP
**Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
**Multilink
55. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
**encapsulation
**encryption
Traffic is only forwarded from SDM-trusted Cisco routers.
Security testing is performed and the results are saved as a text file stored in NVRAM.
**The router is tested for potential security problems and any necessary changes are made.
All traffic entering the router is quarantined and checked for viruses before being forwarded.
2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to configure a router to use SDM but it is not functioning correctly. What could be the problem?
The username and password are not configured correctly.
The authentication method is not configured correctly.
The HTTP timeout policy is not configured correctly.
**The vtys are not configured correctly.
3. Refer to the exhibit. How is the TCP/IP configuration information specified by the default-router and dns-server commands made available?
The TCP/IP information is forwarded to a 10.0.1.3 to be supplied to DHCP clients.
**The TCP/IP information is used by DHCP clients that are configured to request a configuration from R1.
The TCP/IP information is supplied to any DHCP client on the network connected to the FastEthernet 0/0 interface of R1.
The TCP/IP information is applied to each packet that enters R1 through the FastEthernet 0/0 interface that are hosts on the 10.0.1.0 /24 network except packets from addresses 10.0.1.2, 10.0.1.16, and 10.0.1.254.
4. What is a major characteristic of a worm?
malicious software that copies itself into other executable programs
tricks users into running the infected software
a set of computer instructions that lies dormant until triggered by a specific event
**exploits vulnerabilities with the intent of propagating itself across a network
5. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the exhibited output of the debug ip nat command?
The 10.1.1.225 host is exchanging packets with the 192.168.0.10 host.
The native 10.1.200.254 address is being translated to 192.168.0.10.
**The 192.168.0.0/24 network is the inside network.
Port address translation is in effect.
6. A technician is talking to a colleague at a rival company and comparing DSL transfer rates between the two companies. Both companies are in the same city, use the same service provider, and have the same rate/service plan. What is the explanation for why Company A reports higher download speeds than Company B?
Company B has a higher volume of POTS voice traffic than Company A.
Company B shares the conection to the DSLAM with more clients than Company A.
Company A only uses microfilters on branch locations.
**Company A is closer to the service provider.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how Router1 processes an FTP request entering interface s0/0/0, destined for an FTP server at IP address 192.168.1.5?
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 permit any any statement and allows the packet into the router.
**It reaches the end of ACL 101 without matching a condition and drops the packet because there is no access-list 101 permit any any statement.
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 101 permit ip any 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 statement, ignores the remaining statements in ACL 101, and allows the packet into the router.
It matches the incoming packet to the access-list 201 deny icmp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any statement, continues comparing the packet to the remaining statements in ACL 201 to ensure that no subsequent statements allow FTP, and then drops the packet.
8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output shown? (Choose two.)
This network is experiencing congestion.
**The Frame Relay connection is in the process of negotiation.
Data is not flowing in this network.
**The network is discarding eligible packets.
The DLCI is globally significant.
9. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
**Configure dynamic NAT with overload.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC expanded its business and recently opened a new branch office in another country. IPv6 addresses have been used for the company network. The data servers Server1 and Server2 run applications which require end-to-end functionality, with unmodified packets that are forwarded from the source to the destination. The edge routers R1 and R2 support dual stack configuration. What solution should be deployed at the edge of the company network in order to successfully interconnect both offices?
a new WAN service supporting only IPv6
NAT overload to map inside IPv6 addresses to outside IPv4 address
**a manually configured IPv6 tunnel between the edge routers R1 and R2
static NAT to map inside IPv6 addresses of the servers to an outside IPv4 address and dynamic NAT for the rest of the inside IPv6 addresses
11. Refer to the exhibit. You are a network administrator who has been tasked with completing the Frame Relay topology that interconnects two remote sites. How should the point-to-point subinterfaces be configured on HQ to complete the topology?
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 103 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 203 on Serial 0/0/0.2
**HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay interface-dlci 301 on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)# frame-relay interface-dlci 302 on Serial 0/0/0.2
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 103 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 203 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.1.1 301 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.1
HQ(config-subif)#frame-relay map ip 172.16.2.2 302 broadcast on Serial 0/0/0.2
12. An established company has recently transitioned from outsourced LAN support to a completely in-house staff. The outsourcing company is no longer in business, so no records are available. There are many user complaints about application speed and availability. What two considerations apply to this situation? (Choose two.)
A network utilization baseline should quickly reveal application availability.
A period of 24 to 48 hours should provide a sufficient baseline to track normal network activity.
It is easier to start with monitoring all available data inputs on application servers, and then fine-tune to fewer variables along the way.
The initial baseline results have little relevance to current values after the network has been modified or grown in usage.
**When it is practical, network administrators should attempt to automate the collection of performance data and stay away from manual collection.
**Creating a network baseline data helps determine device thresholds for alerting.
13. Which combination of Layer 2 protocol and authentication should be used to establish a link without sending authentication information in plain text between a Cisco and a non-Cisco router?
PPP with PAP
**PPP with CHAP
HDLC with PAP
HDLC with CHAP
14. An administrator is unable to receive e-mail. While troubleshooting the problem, the administrator is able to ping the local mail server IP address successfully from a remote network and can successfully resolve the mail server name to an IP address via the use of the nslookup command. At what OSI layer is the problem most likely to be found?
physical layer
data link layer
network layer
**application layer
15. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, what are two instances when a static Frame Relay map should be used? (Choose two.)
when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
**when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
**when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
16. Which three statements are true about creating and applying access lists? (Choose three.)
Access list entries should filter in the order from general to specific.
**One access list per port per protocol per direction is permitted.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the source while extended ACLs should be applied closest to the destination.
**There is an implicit deny at the end of all access lists.
**Statements are processed sequentially from top to bottom until a match is found.
The inbound keyword refers to traffic entering the network from the router interface where the ACL is applied.
17. Which technology would provide the highest bandwidth connections between company sites at the lowest cost?
**broadband Internet site-to-site VPN connections
satellite based network connections
dedicated point-to-point circuits
Frame Relay PVCs
18. Refer to the exhibit. This serial interface is not functioning correctly. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely cause?
improper LMI type
interface reset
**PPP negotiation failure
unplugged cable
19. What three statements describe the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
**A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
**A modem terminates an analog local loop.
**A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
20. A network administrator is instructing a technician on best practices for applying ACLs. Which suggestion should the administrator provide?
Named ACLs are less efficient than numbered ACLs.
Standard ACLs should be applied closest to the core layer.
ACLs applied to outbound interfaces are the most efficient.
**Extended ACLs should be applied closest to the source that is specified by the ACL.
21. Refer to the exhibit. Branch A has a Cisco router. Branch B has a non-Cisco router set for IETF encapsulation. After the commands shown are entered, R2 and R3 fail to establish the PVC. The R2 LMI is Cisco, and the R3 LMI is ANSI. The LMI is successfully established at both locations. Why is the PVC failing?
The PVC to R3 must be point-to-point.
LMI types must match on each end of a PVC.
**The ietf parameter is missing from the frame-relay map ip 10.10.10.3 203 command.
The PVCs at R2 use different encapsulation types. A single port can only support one encapsulation type.
22. Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?
The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.
The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.
**A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.
A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.
23. Refer to the exhibit. What is placed in the address field in the header of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC Company to the Orlando office?
MAC address of the Orlando router
MAC address of the DC router
192.168.1.25
192.168.1.26
DLCI 100
**DLCI 200
24 .A company is looking for a WAN solution to connect its headquarters site with four remote sites. What advantage would dedicated leased lines provide to the customer compared to a shared Frame Relay solution?
lower cost
lower latency and jitter
**variable bandwidth capacity
fewer physical router interfaces
25. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv2 has been configured on all routers in the network. Routers R1 and R3 do not receive RIP routing updates. On the basis of the provided configuration, what should be enabled on router R2 to remedy the problem?
proxy ARP
CDP updates
SNMP services
**RIP authentication
26. What are the symptoms when the s0/0/0 interface on a router is attached to an operational CSU/DSU that is generating a clock signal, but the far end router on the point-to-point link has not been activated?
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DCE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
**show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial up, line protocol down.
show controllers indicates cable type DTE V.35. show interfaces s0/0/0 indicates serial down, line protocol down.
27. Which statement about a VPN is true?
VPN link establishment and maintenance is provided by LCP.
DLCI addresses are used to identify each end of the VPN tunnel.
**VPNs use virtual Layer 3 connections that are routed through the Internet.
Only IP packets can be encapsulated by a VPN for tunneling through the Internet.
28. Refer to the exhibit. Partial results of the show access-lists and show ip interface FastEthernet 0/1 commands for router R3 are shown. There are no other ACLs in effect. Host A is unable to telnet to host B. Which action will correct the problem but still restrict other traffic between the two networks?
Apply the ACL in the inbound direction.
Apply the ACL on the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
**Reverse the order of the TCP protocol statements in the ACL.
Modify the second entry in the list to permit tcp host 192.168.10.10 any eq telnet .
29. Refer to the exhibit. What happens if the network administrator issues the commands shown when an ACL called Managers already exists on the router?
The commands overwrite the existing Managers ACL.
**The commands are added at the end of the existing Managers ACL.
The network administrator receives an error stating that the ACL already exists.
The commands will create a duplicate Managers ACL containing only the new commands being entered.
30. Which three statements accurately describe a security policy? (Choose three.)
**It creates a basis for legal action if necessary.
**It defines a process for managing security violations.
**It defines acceptable and unacceptable use of network resources.
The remote access policy is a component of the security policy that governs acceptable use of e-mail systems.
It is kept private from users to prevent the possibility of circumventing security measures.
It provides step-by-step procedures to harden routers and other network devices.
31. Refer to the exhibit. The link between the CTRL and BR_1 routers is configured as shown in the exhibit. Why are the routers unable to establish a PPP session?
The clock rate must be 56000.
**The usernames are misconfigured.
The IP addresses are on different subnets.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
The CHAP passwords must be different on the two routers.
Interface serial 0/0/0 on CTRL must connect to interface serial 0/0/1 on BR_1.
32. What effect would the Router1(config-ext-nacl)# permit tcp 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 any eq www command have when implemented inbound on the f0/0 interface?
All TCP traffic is permitted, and all other traffic is denied.
The command is rejected by the router because it is incomplete.
All traffic from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted anywhere on any port.
**Traffic originating from 172.16.4.0/24 is permitted to all TCP port 80 destinations.
33. What can a network administrator do to recover from a lost router password?
use the copy tftp: flash: command
boot the router to bootROM mode and enter the b command to load the IOS manually
telnet from another router and issue the show running-config command to view the password
**boot the router to ROM monitor mode and configure the router to ignore the startup configuration when it initializes
34. A router in a Frame Relay network needs to forward a message received from a host. What two methods does the router use to identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
**A table of static mappings can be searched.
The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.
35. Refer to the exhibit. From the output of the show interface commands, at which OSI layer is a fault indicated?
application
transport
network
**data link
physical
36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator creates a standard access control list to prohibit traffic from the 192.168.1.0/24 network from reaching the 192.168.2.0/24 network while still permitting Internet access for all networks. On which router interface and in which direction should it be applied?
interface fa0/0/0, inbound
interface fa0/0/0, outbound
interface fa0/0/1, inbound
**interface fa0/0/1, outbound
37. Refer to the exhibit. The SSH connections between the remote user and the server are failing. The correct configuration of NAT has been verified. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
SSH is unable to pass through NAT.
**There are incorrect access control list entries.
The access list has the incorrect port number for SSH.
The ip helper command is required on S0/0/0 to allow inbound connections.
38. Refer to the exhibit. A technician issues the show interface s0/0/0 command on R1 while troubleshooting a network problem. What two conclusions can be determined by from the output shown? (Choose two.)
**The bandwidth has been set to the value of a T1 line.
Encapsulation should of this inteface be changed to PPP.
**There is no failure indicated in an OSI Layer 1 or Layer 2.
The physical connection between the two routers has failed.
The IP address of S0/0 is invalid, given the subnet mask being used.
39. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent from Host A to Host B through the VPN tunnel between R1 and R3. When the packet first arrives at R3, what are the source and destination IP addresses of the packet?
Source 192.168.1.2 - Destination 192.168.4.2
Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2
**Source 192.168.2.1 - Destination 192.168.3.2
Source 192.168.3.1 - Destination 192.168.4.2
40. An administrator is configuring a dual stack router with IPv6 and IPv4 using RIPng. The administrator receives an error message when trying to enter the IPv4 routes into RIPng. What is the cause of the problem?
RIPng is incompatible with dual-stack technology.
All interfaces have been configured with the incorrect IPv4 addresses.
**RIPv1 or RIPv2 needs to be configured in addition to RIPng to successfully use IPv4.
When IPv4 and IPv6 are configured on the same interface, all IPv4 addresses are shut down in favor of the newer technology.
41. Which wireless solution can provide mobile users with non line-of-sight broadband Internet access at speeds comparable to DSL or cable?
Wi-Fi
WiMAX
**satellite
Metro Ethernet
42. A network administrator added two switches and a new VLAN over the past weekend. How can the administrator determine if the additions and changes improved performance and availability on the company intranet?
**Perform a baseline test and compare the current values to values that were obtained in previous weeks.
Interview departmental secretaries and determine if they think load time for web pages is improved.
Compare the hit counts on the company web server for the current week to the values that were recorded from previous weeks.
Performance on the intranet can be determined by monitoring load times of company web pages from remote sites.
43. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding R1 to an existing network. As a part of the corporate IT procedures, the administrator attempts to back up the router Cisco IOS software of R1 and receives the output shown. The network administrator then attempts unsuccessfully to ping the TFTP server from the console session. What should be done next to isolate this problem?
From R2, validate that interface Fa0/0 is operational.
From the TFTP server, verify that the software on the TFTP server is operational.
From the TFTP server, confirm there is enough room on the TFTP server for the Cisco IOS software.
**From the console session, make sure that R1 has a route to the network where the TFTP server resides.
44. What functionality do access control lists provide when implementing dynamic NAT on a Cisco router?
**defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
defines which addresses can be accessed from the inside network
45. A network administrator is working with an applications team to fix a problem that a server based application is having with response time. The administrator has examined the network portions of the data path and identified several possible problem areas. The applications team has simultaneously identified potential issues with the current release of software. The network administrator begins addressing the network issues while the applications team implements software patches.
Which statement applies to this situation?
**Changes to the network will reveal problems that are caused by the new patches.
Scheduling will be more difficult if the network and software teams work independently.
It will be difficult to isolate the problem if two teams are implementing changes independently.
Results from changes will be easier to reconcile and document if each team works in isolation.
46. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT overload for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. Host A has sent a packet to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return packet from the web server?
10.1.1.2:1234
172.30.20.1:1234
**172.30.20.1:3333
192.168.1.2:80
47. Which three guidelines would help contribute to creating a strong password policy? (Choose three.)
Once a good password is created, do not change it.
**Deliberately misspell words when creating passwords.
**Create passwords that are at least 8 characters in length.
**Use combinations of upper case, lower case, and special characters.
Write passwords in locations that can be easily retrieved to avoid being locked out.
Use long words found in the dictionary to make passwords that are easy to remember.
48. What will be the result of adding the command ip dhcp excluded-address 172.16.4.1 172.16.4.5 to the configuration of a local router that has been configured as a DHCP server?
Traffic that is destined for 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5 will be dropped by the router.
Traffic will not be routed from clients with addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
**The DHCP server function of the router will not issue the addresses between 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
The router will ignore all traffic that comes from the DHCP servers with addresses 172.16.4.1 and 172.16.4.5.
49. Which two statements are true about IPv6? (Choose two.)
**Security options are build into IPv6.
IPv6 addresses require less router overhead to process.
IPv6 can only be configured on an interface that does not have IPv4 on it.
There is no way to translate between IPv4 addresses and IPv6 addresses.
**When enabled on a router, IPv6 can automatically configure link-local IPv6 addresses on all interfaces.
50. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the commands that are shown on Router1 and Router2. A later review of the routing tables reveals that neither router is learning the LAN network of the neighbor router. What is most likely the problem with the RIPng configuration?
The serial interfaces are in different subnets.
**The RIPng process is not enabled on interfaces.
The RIPng network command is not configured.
The RIPng processes do not match between Router1 and Router2.
51. At what physical location does the responsibilty for a WAN connection change from the user to the service provider?
demilitarized zone (DMZ)
**demarcation point
local loop
cloud
52. Refer to the exhibit. A host connected to Fa0/0 is unable to acquire an IP address from this DHCP server. The output of the debug ip dhcp server command shows "DHCPD: there is no address pool for 192.168.1.1". What is the problem?
The 192.168.1.1 address has not been excluded from the DHCP pool.
**The pool of addresses for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The default router for the 192Network pool is incorrect.
The 192.168.1.1 address is already configured on Fa0/0.
53. Which three functions are provided by the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
**exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
**map DLCIs to network addresses
provide flow control
provide error notification
provide congestion notification
**send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC
54. Which three items are LCP options that can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
**CHAP
**Stacker
IPCP
CDPCP
**Multilink
55. What are two main components of data confidentiality? (Choose two.)
checksum
digital certificates
**encapsulation
**encryption
CCNA4 FINAL (New 1)
1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
CIR
DE
• DLCI
ISDN
FRAD
PVC
3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.
4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
There is no clock present on the serial interface.
The interface is shut down.
RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.
5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
The point is located between the customer's local area networks.
6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show interfaces serial 0/0
show version
• show controllers serial 0/0
show protocols serial 0/0
show status serial 0/0
7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.
8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.
9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast
11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
ITU-T Q.931
ITU-T I.430
ITU-T I.431
12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
create a full-mesh topology
disable Inverse ARP
use point-to-point subinterfaces
use multipoint subinterfaces
remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command
13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Add a clock rate on RouterA.
Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.
15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
disable inverse ARP
16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made
1,2,3,4
1,3,2,4
2,3,1,4
2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
3,1,2,4
17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
NAT with DHCP
Frame Relay
HDLC with encryption
HDLC with CHAP
PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP
18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)
create subinterfaces
define the LMI type
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
set the interface DLCI
set the switch type
specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF
19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
use PPP multilink
lower idle timer setting
use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.
21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.
22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.
23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
dial string
DLCI
idle time out
• interesting traffic
PVC
24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
Application Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
Physical Layer, Network Layer
25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?
The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit is functioning properly.
26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.
Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.
27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.
28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
There is not a route to the remote router.
The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.
29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
active indicates that the ARP process is working.
30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.
31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29
32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.
33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?
frame-relay pvc multipoint
frame-relay pvc point-to-point
encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
frame-relay lmi-type ansi
34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
X.25
DSL
ISDN
cable modem
35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
show dialer
show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
show interfaces serial0/0.1
36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
Install and configure a PRI.
Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.
37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.
38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
circuit-switched
• connection oriented
OSI Layer 3
• packet-switched
reliable
39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
A modem terminates a digital local loop.
A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
CIR
DE
• DLCI
ISDN
FRAD
PVC
3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.
4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
There is no clock present on the serial interface.
The interface is shut down.
RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.
5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.
The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
The point is located between the customer's local area networks.
6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
show interfaces serial 0/0
show version
• show controllers serial 0/0
show protocols serial 0/0
show status serial 0/0
7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
The DHCP server service is not enabled.
The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.
8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.
9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used
10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast
11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
ITU-T Q.931
ITU-T I.430
ITU-T I.431
12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
create a full-mesh topology
disable Inverse ARP
use point-to-point subinterfaces
use multipoint subinterfaces
remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command
13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
defines which addresses can be translated
defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool
14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
Add a clock rate on RouterA.
Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.
15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
disable inverse ARP
16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made
1,2,3,4
1,3,2,4
2,3,1,4
2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
3,1,2,4
17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
NAT with DHCP
Frame Relay
HDLC with encryption
HDLC with CHAP
PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP
18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)
create subinterfaces
define the LMI type
set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
set the interface DLCI
set the switch type
specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF
19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
use PPP multilink
lower idle timer setting
use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.
21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.
22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?
The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
The usernames are misconfigured.
The clock rate must be 56000.
The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.
23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
dial string
DLCI
idle time out
• interesting traffic
PVC
24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
Application Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
Physical Layer, Network Layer
25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?
The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
The circuit is functioning properly.
26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.
Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.
Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.
27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.
28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
There is not a route to the remote router.
The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.
29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
active indicates that the ARP process is working.
30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.
31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29
32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.
33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?
frame-relay pvc multipoint
frame-relay pvc point-to-point
encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
frame-relay lmi-type ansi
34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
X.25
DSL
ISDN
cable modem
35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
show dialer
show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
show interfaces serial0/0.1
36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
Install and configure a PRI.
Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.
37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
Configure static NAT for all ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
Configure DHCP and static NAT.
What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.
38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
circuit-switched
• connection oriented
OSI Layer 3
• packet-switched
reliable
39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication
CCNA1 FINAL (New2)
1. Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)
Switch
router
2. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?
Seven
3. Refer to the exhibit. The physical documentation shows a portion of the internetwork of the ABC Company. Which segments will be free of collisions?
segments 3, 4, and 5
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the administrator prefer it?
Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.
5. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
Physical
6. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?
Three
7. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the distance between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the OSI can be used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)
hub
repeater
8. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)
a unique host IP address
the subnet mask for the LAN
the default gateway address
9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
10. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.35.0 subnetted with a /28 mask?
14 networks / 14 hosts
11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
13. Two peer hosts are exchanging data using TFTP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. Which statement is true regarding the retransmission of the datagram?
Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application.
14. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
TFTP
DNS
15. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
1 and 2; 3 and 6
16. In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP cable to use?
A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
17. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?
Cable C
18. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0
19. Which physical network topology is easy to monitor and troubleshoot, easy to add new devices to as the network expands, but subject to complete failure when a central hub or switch ceases to work?
Star
20. A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. For what purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)
to connect a switch to a switch
to connect a hub to a switch
21. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Workstation 1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?
Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.
23. Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?
Router
24. An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. The host finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?
The host discards the frame.
25. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
Session
26. A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating at 100 Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?
100 Mbps
27. Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?
The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.
28. Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used when the router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?
Network
29. Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?
A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub sends the frame out all ports except the source port.
30. Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if host A transmits a broadcast frame?
Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.
31. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of Ethernet cable is represented?
straight-through cable
32. The ping command can be used to test connectivity between hosts. Which OSI model layers are verified by this test?
Layers 1, 2 and 3
33. A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were successful. The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?
The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.
34. Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?
It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.
35. A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?
Network
36. How does a switch learn the addresses of hosts connected to its ports?
The switch reads the source MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.
37. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate LAN links? (Choose two.)
link A
link E
38. A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the changes in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?
dynamic routing protocols
39. A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already installed. Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?
crossover
40. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
bits, frames, packets, segments, data
42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
straight-through
43. Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)
Token Ring
Ethernet
44. Refer to the topology in the graphic. Which characteristic does this type of topology possess?
Communication continues in the event of a break in any one connection.
45. Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)
uses port numbers
classified as a transport layer protocol
46. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.192.160
47. Which type of address is 192.168.170.112/28?
subnetwork address
48. What is the decimal representation of the binary number 11111000?
248
49. What are important characteristics to consider when purchasing a network interface card? (Choose two.)
media used on the network system
bus used on the computer
50. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
It is a media access method used in LANs.
When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available.
Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.
Switch
router
2. How many collision domains are shown in the diagram?
Seven
3. Refer to the exhibit. The physical documentation shows a portion of the internetwork of the ABC Company. Which segments will be free of collisions?
segments 3, 4, and 5
4. Refer to the exhibit. Which diagram represents the network topology that an administrator would prefer, and why would the administrator prefer it?
Diagram A. It will better provide available bandwidth to the hosts.
5. After an unsuccessful ping to the local router, the technician decides to investigate the router. The technician observes that the lights and fan on the router are not operational. In which layer of the OSI model is the problem most likely occurring?
Physical
6. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are shown?
Three
7. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to establish an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B. However, the distance between the two hosts is further than the cabling standards allow. Which two devices that operate at the physical layer of the OSI can be used to allow Host A and Host B to communicate? (Choose two.)
hub
repeater
8. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on Host B to allow it to communicate with the file server? (Choose three.)
a unique host IP address
the subnet mask for the LAN
the default gateway address
9. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings Host B. What can be concluded about the source and destination addresses contained in the communication sent by Router R5 when it forwards the ping out the Ethernet interface to Host B? (Choose two.)
source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
10. What is the correct number of usable subnetworks and hosts for the IP network address 192.168.35.0 subnetted with a /28 mask?
14 networks / 14 hosts
11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
255.255.255.252
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?
IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17
13. Two peer hosts are exchanging data using TFTP. During the current session, a datagram fails to arrive at the destination. Which statement is true regarding the retransmission of the datagram?
Datagram retransmission is controlled by the application.
14. Which protocols are TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose two.)
TFTP
DNS
15. When using Category 5 UTP cable, which RJ-45 pin pairs are used to exchange data between hosts on an Ethernet network?
1 and 2; 3 and 6
16. In the exhibit, the connections between the devices are labeled A, B, C, D, and E. For each connection, what is the correct UTP cable to use?
A=rollover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover
17. Which cable diagram displays the end to end pinout for a crossover cable used with Cisco devices?
Cable C
18. Which subnet masks could be used when subnetting a Class B IP address? (Choose two.)
255.255.255.240
255.255.192.0
19. Which physical network topology is easy to monitor and troubleshoot, easy to add new devices to as the network expands, but subject to complete failure when a central hub or switch ceases to work?
Star
20. A computer technician is asked to make a network cable. One end of the cable is pinned as a 568A and the other as a 568B. For what purposes can this cable be used? (Choose two.)
to connect a switch to a switch
to connect a hub to a switch
21. Refer to the exhibit. Workstation 1 pings the Fa0/1 interface of Router 1. Which MAC address will workstation 1 obtain during the ARP request for this communication?
00-08-A3-B6-CE-02
22. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured a network after subnetting the network number 192.168.0.0/28. Workstation 1 is not able to communicate with Workstation 2. What is the cause of this loss in communications?
Workstation 1 is not on the same network that the Router 1 LAN interface is on.
23. Which network device creates the highest amount of latency?
Router
24. An Ethernet host receives a frame, calculates the FCS, and compares the calculated FCS to the FCS received in the frame. The host finds that the two FCS values do not match. What action will be taken by the host?
The host discards the frame.
25. A user initiates three simultaneous FTP connections from the local host to the same FTP server. Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing and managing these different FTP connections?
Session
26. A network administrator has installed a 24 port switch and connected 10 computers with 10/100 NICs. If the NICs are operating at 100 Mbps, how much bandwidth is available for each computer to receive data?
100 Mbps
27. Based on the graphic above, which of the following occurs as each host system comes on line in the topology?
The switch adds MAC address to the bridge table as each host sends a frame.
28. Consider the networks shown in the exhibit. Host A is sending packets to host B. Which layer of the OSI model is being used when the router is making the calculated decision to determine which interface to send the packet out?
Network
29. Why would a company install a switch instead of a hub when building or expanding a corporate network?
A switch provides more bandwidth by sending frames only out the port to which the destination device is attached. A hub sends the frame out all ports except the source port.
30. Refer to the exhibit. The hub and the switch are operating using factory default settings. Which hosts will receive the frame if host A transmits a broadcast frame?
Workstations B, C, D, E, and the router will receive the data.
31. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of Ethernet cable is represented?
straight-through cable
32. The ping command can be used to test connectivity between hosts. Which OSI model layers are verified by this test?
Layers 1, 2 and 3
33. A technician is testing connectivity between the devices using the ping command. Pings between Host B and Host A were successful. The technician could not ping the R3 address 172.16.3.2 from Host A. The technician issued ipconfig from Host A and saw the information displayed in the exhibit. What is the most likely problem?
The default gateway of Host A is incorrect.
34. Why do vendors utilize the OSI model when designing networking products?
It ensures greater compatibility and interoperability with equipment from different vendors.
35. A router determines the path to deliver a packet. What layer of the OSI model does this fact represent?
Network
36. How does a switch learn the addresses of hosts connected to its ports?
The switch reads the source MAC address on incoming frames and records it in CAM.
37. Refer to the exhibit. The connections in the exhibit are labeled A through E. Which of these indicate LAN links? (Choose two.)
link A
link E
38. A large company has a network that is constantly changing. The routing tables in the routers need to be adjusted to reflect the changes in the routing paths. What type of routing would the network administrator implement?
dynamic routing protocols
39. A network administrator has added a new switch to the network. The new switch connects to an existing switch that is already installed. Which UTP cable correctly connects the new switch to the existing switch?
crossover
40. Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician has a task of terminating CAT 5 UTP cables. The network administrator visually examined the cables the technician terminated. Some of the cables have connectors as shown in the exhibit. What should the network administrator explain to the technician about the cables?
The cable in Graphic A will produce more crosstalk.
41. Refer to the exhibit. What is the order of the TCP/IP Protocol Data Units as data is moved as indicated through the OSI model?
bits, frames, packets, segments, data
42. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of UTP cable should be used to connect Host A to Switch1?
straight-through
43. Which technologies are considered to be LAN technologies? (Choose two.)
Token Ring
Ethernet
44. Refer to the topology in the graphic. Which characteristic does this type of topology possess?
Communication continues in the event of a break in any one connection.
45. Which characteristics are common to both UDP and TCP? (Choose two.)
uses port numbers
classified as a transport layer protocol
46. A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
172.16.192.160
47. Which type of address is 192.168.170.112/28?
subnetwork address
48. What is the decimal representation of the binary number 11111000?
248
49. What are important characteristics to consider when purchasing a network interface card? (Choose two.)
media used on the network system
bus used on the computer
50. Which of the following statements are correct about CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
It is a media access method used in LANs.
When a device needs to transmit, it checks to see if the media is available.
Only one device can successfully transmit at a time.
CCNA1 FINAL (New1)
1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
- 0060.7320.D632
- 0060.7320.D631
- 0040.8517.44C3
- 0009.B2E4.EE03
- 0010.C2B4.3421
2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
- It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
- After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
- A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
- Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
- Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
- It uses a token system to avoid collisions.
3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
- PC
- switch
- router interface fa 0/0
- router interface fa 0/1
4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
- Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
- Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
- Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
- Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
- The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
- Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
- Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
- Host X is assigned a network address.
6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
- The interface is configured as a DCE device.
- The interface timers are cleared.
- The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
- The IP address for the serial interface is configured.
7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
- 127.0.0.1
- 196.1.105.6
- 132.11.9.99
- 10.0.0.1
- 172.16.9.10
- 46.1.1.97
8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
- TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
- TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
- TCP acknowledges received data.
- UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
- TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
- UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
- star
- ring
- point-to-point
- multi-access
10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
- It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
- It is stored in NVRAM.
- It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
- It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
- Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
- The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
- The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
- The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.
12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
- It uses error control mechanisms.
- It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
- It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
- It uses multiple port numbers.
13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
- 10.0.0.254
- 192.168.0.249
- 192.168.0.250
- 10.0.1.254
14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
- Segment 1
- Segment 2
- Segment 3
- Segment 4
- Segment 5
- Segment 6
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
- Three networks are needed.
- Two logical address ranges are required.
- A single broadcast domain is present.
- Three collision domains are present.
- Four networks are needed.
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
- The assigned address is a private address.
- The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
- The network can have 126 hosts.
- The prefix of the computer address is /26.
- The IP address is routable on the Internet.
- The IP address is a multicast address.
17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
- enable
- enable secret
- console
- VTY
18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
- It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
- It provides out-of-band console access.
- It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
- It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router.
19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
- access switch
- DHCP server
- hub
- router
20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
- Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
- Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
- Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
- Reboot the router.
21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
- The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
- The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
- Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
- Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
- No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.
22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
- console
- Ethernet
- auxiliary
- serial
23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
- application layer
- presentation layer
- session layer
- transport layer
24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
- It segments and reorders the data.
- It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
- It controls how data is placed onto the media.
- It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
- It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media.
25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
- D,E,F,G
- A,H,B,C
- A,D,E,F
- A,D,E,G
26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
- 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
- The table will remain unaffected.
- The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa 0/19 immediately.
- The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
- The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.
28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
- The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
- The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
- The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
- The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
- The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.
29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
- 10.1.1.63
- 10.1.1.37
- 10.1.1.39
- 10.1.1.32
- 10.1.1.60
- 10.1.1.2
30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
- Use the ipconfig command at the host.
- Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
- Use the tracert command at the host.
- Use the ping command at the destination.
31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.255.248.0
- 255.255.252.0
- 255.255.254.0
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.255.128
32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
- IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
- IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
- 192.168.1.99
- 192.168.2.100
- 10.10.10.32
- 192.168.1.5
- the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local
34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
- application layer
- network layer
- presentation layer
- session layer
- transport layer
35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
- 0 to 255
- 49152 to 65535
- 1024 to 4915
- 10 to 1023
37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password arj15
Router(config-line)# login
- This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
- Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
- This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
- This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
- The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.
38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
- Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
- Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
- Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
- Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
- Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
- 10 BASE-T
- 1000 BASE-TX
- 10 BASE-2
- 1000 BASE LX
- 1000 BASE-SX
40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
- the host portion of the IP address
- the network portion of the IP address
- host default gateway address
- the MAC address
41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
- This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
- The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
- The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
- The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
- The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
- MAC address of the server and port number of the service
- IP address of the host and port number of the service
- MAC address of the host and port number of the service
- IP address of the server and port number of the service
43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
- Router>
- Router(config-if)#
- Router#
- Router(config)#
44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
- telnet 192.168.1.1
- ping 192.168.1.1
- ftp 192.168.1.1
- tracert 192.168.1.1
45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
- timing and synchronization bits
- destination and source physical addresses
- destination and source logical network addresses
- destination and source process numbers
46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0
47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
- The contents of ROM will change.
- The contents of RAM will change.
- The contents of NVRAM will change.
- The contents of flash will change.
48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
- 10.1.12.79/28
- 10.1.12.113/28
- 10.1.12.32/28
- 10.1.11.5/27
- 10.1.11.97/27
- 10.1.11.128/27
49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
- 192.168.1.191
- 192.168.1.101
- 192.168.1.1
- 192.168.1.254
50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
- It uniquely identifies each host.
- It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
- It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
- It is not a configurable address.
- It is a physical address.
- It identifies the host from the first part of the address.
- 0060.7320.D632
- 0060.7320.D631
- 0040.8517.44C3
- 0009.B2E4.EE03
- 0010.C2B4.3421
2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
- It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
- After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
- A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
- Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
- Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
- It uses a token system to avoid collisions.
3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
- PC
- switch
- router interface fa 0/0
- router interface fa 0/1
4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
- Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
- Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
- Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
- Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
- The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
- Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
- Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
- Host X is assigned a network address.
6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
- The interface is configured as a DCE device.
- The interface timers are cleared.
- The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
- The IP address for the serial interface is configured.
7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
- 127.0.0.1
- 196.1.105.6
- 132.11.9.99
- 10.0.0.1
- 172.16.9.10
- 46.1.1.97
8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
- TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
- TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
- TCP acknowledges received data.
- UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
- TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
- UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
- star
- ring
- point-to-point
- multi-access
10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
- It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
- It is stored in NVRAM.
- It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
- It is automatically saved when the router reboots.
11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
- Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
- The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
- The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
- The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.
12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
- It uses error control mechanisms.
- It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
- It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
- It uses multiple port numbers.
13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
- 10.0.0.254
- 192.168.0.249
- 192.168.0.250
- 10.0.1.254
14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
- Segment 1
- Segment 2
- Segment 3
- Segment 4
- Segment 5
- Segment 6
15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
- Three networks are needed.
- Two logical address ranges are required.
- A single broadcast domain is present.
- Three collision domains are present.
- Four networks are needed.
16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
- The assigned address is a private address.
- The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
- The network can have 126 hosts.
- The prefix of the computer address is /26.
- The IP address is routable on the Internet.
- The IP address is a multicast address.
17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
- enable
- enable secret
- console
- VTY
18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
- It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
- It provides out-of-band console access.
- It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
- It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router.
19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
- access switch
- DHCP server
- hub
- router
20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
- Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
- Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
- Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
- Reboot the router.
21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
- The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
- The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
- Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
- Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
- No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.
22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
- console
- Ethernet
- auxiliary
- serial
23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
- application layer
- presentation layer
- session layer
- transport layer
24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
- It segments and reorders the data.
- It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
- It controls how data is placed onto the media.
- It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
- It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media.
25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
- D,E,F,G
- A,H,B,C
- A,D,E,F
- A,D,E,G
26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
- 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
- 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA
27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
- The table will remain unaffected.
- The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa 0/19 immediately.
- The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
- The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.
28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
- The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
- The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
- The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
- The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
- The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.
29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
- 10.1.1.63
- 10.1.1.37
- 10.1.1.39
- 10.1.1.32
- 10.1.1.60
- 10.1.1.2
30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
- Use the ipconfig command at the host.
- Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
- Use the tracert command at the host.
- Use the ping command at the destination.
31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.255.248.0
- 255.255.252.0
- 255.255.254.0
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.255.128
32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
- IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
- IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
- IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
- 192.168.1.99
- 192.168.2.100
- 10.10.10.32
- 192.168.1.5
- the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local
34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
- application layer
- network layer
- presentation layer
- session layer
- transport layer
35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
- 0 to 255
- 49152 to 65535
- 1024 to 4915
- 10 to 1023
37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password arj15
Router(config-line)# login
- This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
- Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
- This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
- This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
- The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.
38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
- Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
- Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
- Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
- Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
- Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
- 10 BASE-T
- 1000 BASE-TX
- 10 BASE-2
- 1000 BASE LX
- 1000 BASE-SX
40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
- the host portion of the IP address
- the network portion of the IP address
- host default gateway address
- the MAC address
41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
- This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
- The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
- The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
- The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
- The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.
42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
- MAC address of the server and port number of the service
- IP address of the host and port number of the service
- MAC address of the host and port number of the service
- IP address of the server and port number of the service
43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
- Router>
- Router(config-if)#
- Router#
- Router(config)#
44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
- telnet 192.168.1.1
- ping 192.168.1.1
- ftp 192.168.1.1
- tracert 192.168.1.1
45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
- timing and synchronization bits
- destination and source physical addresses
- destination and source logical network addresses
- destination and source process numbers
46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
- 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0
47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
- The contents of ROM will change.
- The contents of RAM will change.
- The contents of NVRAM will change.
- The contents of flash will change.
48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
- 10.1.12.79/28
- 10.1.12.113/28
- 10.1.12.32/28
- 10.1.11.5/27
- 10.1.11.97/27
- 10.1.11.128/27
49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
- 192.168.1.191
- 192.168.1.101
- 192.168.1.1
- 192.168.1.254
50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
- It uniquely identifies each host.
- It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
- It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
- It is not a configurable address.
- It is a physical address.
- It identifies the host from the first part of the address.
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