CCNA Exploration 1 - FINAL Exam Answers Version 4.0

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
• 0060.7320.D632
• 0060.7320.D631
• 0040.8517.44C3
• 0009.B2E4.EE03
• 0010.C2B4.3421

2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
• A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
• It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
• PC
• switch
• router interface fa0/0
• router interface fa0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
• The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
• Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
• Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
• Host X is assigned a network address.

6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
• The interface is configured as a DCE device.
• The interface timers are cleared.
• The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
• The IP address for the serial interface is configured.

7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.0.1
• 196.1.105.6
• 132.11.9.99
• 10.0.0.1
• 172.16.9.10
• 46.1.1.97

8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
• TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
• TCP acknowledges received data.
• UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
• TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
• UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
• star
• ring
• point-to-point
• multi-access  

10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
• It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
• It is stored in NVRAM.
• It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
• It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
• Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
• The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
• The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
• The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
• It uses error control mechanisms.
• It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
• It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
• It uses multiple port numbers.

13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
• 10.0.0.254
• 192.168.0.249
• 192.168.0.250
• 10.0.1.254 

14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1
• Segment 2
• Segment 3
• Segment 4
• Segment 5
• Segment 6

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
• Three networks are needed.
• Two logical address ranges are required.
• A single broadcast domain is present.
• Three collision domains are present.
• Four networks are needed.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
• The assigned address is a private address.
• The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
• The network can have 126 hosts.
• The prefix of the computer address is /26.
• The IP address is routable on the Internet.
• The IP address is a multicast address. 17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
• enable
• enable secret
• console
• VTY

18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
• It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
• It provides out-of-band console access.
• It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
• It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router. 19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
• access switch
• DHCP server
• hub
• router

20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
• Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
• Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
• Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
• Reboot the router.

21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
• The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
• The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
• Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
• Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
• No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
• console
• Ethernet
• auxiliary
• serial 23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
• application layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer 24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
• It segments and reorders the data.
• It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
• It controls how data is placed onto the media.
• It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
• It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media. 25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
• D,E,F,G
• A,H,B,C
• A,D,E,F
• A,D,E,G

26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
• 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
The table will remain unaffected.
• The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19 immediately.
• The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
• The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
• The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
• The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
• The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
• The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
• The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.

29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.63
• 10.1.1.37
• 10.1.1.39
• 10.1.1.32
• 10.1.1.60
• 10.1.1.2 30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
• Use the ipconfig command at the host.
• Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
• Use the tracert command at the host.
• Use the ping command at the destination.

31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
• IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
• IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35

33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.1.99
• 192.168.2.100
• 10.10.10.32
• 192.168.1.5
• the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local

34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
• application layer
• network layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer

35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
• 0 to 255
• 49152 to 65535
• 1024 to 49151
• 0 to 1023

37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config-line)# password arj15

Router(config-line)# login
• This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
• Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
• This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
• This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
• The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
• Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable

39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
• 10 BASE-T
• 1000 BASE-TX
• 10 BASE-2
• 1000 BASE LX
• 1000 BASE-SX 40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
• the host portion of the IP address
• the network portion of the IP address
• host default gateway address
• the MAC address

41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
• This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
• The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
• The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
• The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
• The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
• MAC address of the server and port number of the service
• IP address of the host and port number of the service
• MAC address of the host and port number of the service
• IP address of the server and port number of the service

43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
• Router>
• Router(config-if)#
• Router#
• Router(config)# 44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
• telnet 192.168.1.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ftp 192.168.1.1
• tracert 192.168.1.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
• timing and synchronization bits
• destination and source physical addresses
• destination and source logical network addresses
• destination and source process numbers

46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0

47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
• The contents of ROM will change.
• The contents of RAM will change.
• The contents of NVRAM will change.
• The contents of flash will change.

48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.12.79/28
• 10.1.12.113/28
• 10.1.12.32/28
• 10.1.11.5/27
• 10.1.11.97/27
• 10.1.11.128/27

49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
• 192.168.1.191
• 192.168.1.101
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.1.254

50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
• It uniquely identifies each host.
• It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
• It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
• It is not a configurable address.
• It is a physical address.
• It identifies the host from the first part of the address.

CCNA3 FINAL - D

1

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to setup Switch1 for remote access from HostA. The show ip interface brief is issued on Router1 and the show interfaces trunk command is issued on the
Switch1 to verify the current status. The administrator applies the additional configuration shown in the exhibit to Switch1. However, the telnet from HostA fails. What additional commands need to be applied

to the switch?


Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

Switch(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.50.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.50.254


Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254



==> Switch(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254


Switch(config)# interface vlan 50
Switch(config-if)# ip address 10.1.10.250 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown
Switch(config-if)# ip default-gateway 10.1.10.254

2


Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how will an Ethernet frame on port GigabitEthernet0/1 be modified?

802.1Q encapsulation prepends a 4-byte tag field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

==> 802.1Q encapsulation inserts a 4-byte tag field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.
802.1Q encapsulation prepends an 802.1p field in front of the original Ethernet frame and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.

802.1Q encapsulation inserts an 802.1p field into the original Ethernet frame between the source address and type/length fields and recomputes the frame check sequence (FCS) on the modified frame.




3
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
==> All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
4

Which parameter is used to uniquely identify one wireless network from another?
==> SSID

OFDM

WEP

DSSS

5

Refer to the exhibit. What is the consequence if SW1 port F0/1 is configured as an edge port?

SW1 port F0/1 transitions to the learning state.

==> SW1 port F0/1 can generate a temporary loop.

SW1 port F0/1 becomes a non-designated port.

SW1 port F0/2 no longer passes BPDUs to SW4.
6
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?

QoS
routing
==> trunking
VPN

7

Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are 128 for all interfaces. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. Which two port results are correct? (Choose two.)
==> S1 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
S2 Gi0/2 becomes a non-designated port.
S3 Gi0/1 becomes a non-designated port.
S4 Gi0/1 becomes a root port.
==> S4 Gi0/2 becomes a designated port.
8
Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch has established two-way communication with the neighboring devices.
==> This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.
This switch will drop all VTP advertisements that come from the switches that are configured in the same VTP domain.
==> This switch will cause no disruption in the VTP domain operations if the rest of the switches in the same VTP domain have a higher configuration revision number.
9


Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. R1 can ping computer 3 but cannot ping computer 1. What is a possible cause for this failure?
==> S1 port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN.
R1 does not have an active routing protocol.
The IP address of computer 1 is in the wrong logical network.
Router interface Fa0/0 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

10

Refer to the exhibit. Both switches are interconnected via a trunk link. Host A and host B are on the default VLAN but are not able to exchange traffic. What should be done to fix the problem?
Allow all VLANs on the trunk link.
Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
Include a router or switch with Layer 3 capabilities.
==> Configure the same native VLAN on both ends of the trunk.
11
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2.
==> Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.

12
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
A new RSA key pair is created.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client.
==> The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.

13

Refer to the exhibit. An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?

==> forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3


add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table

forward the frame out Interface3


discard the frame
forward the frame out all interfaces

forward the frame out Interface2
14

Which two statements describe Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

==> It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies.
It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies.
==> It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use.
It can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used together.
It can only be used in networks where routers are installed.

15


Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP addresses should be assigned to this new host?
192.168.1.11 /28
==> 192.168.1.22 /28
192.168.1.33 /28
192.168.1.44 /28
192.168.1.55 /28
16
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW1 manage traffic coming from Host A?
SW1 drops the traffic because it is untagged.
==> SW1 leaves the traffic untagged and forwards it over the trunk.
SW1 tags the traffic with the lowest VLAN ID value and forwards it over the trunk link.
SW1 encapsulates the traffic with 802.1Q encapsulation and forwards it over the trunk link.
17

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are configured for VTP as shown. Which two statements correctly describe the operation of these switches? (Choose two.)
A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added only to Switch2.
==> A new VLAN can be added to Switch1 and that information will be added to Switch2 and Switch4.
==> An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch4 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch2.
An existing VLAN can be deleted from Switch2 and that VLAN will be deleted from Switch1 and Switch4.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch4 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch3.
A new VLAN can be added to Switch3 and that information will be added to Switch1, Switch2, and Switch4.

18
Refer to the exhibit. Computer A sends a broadcast message. Which devices will see the broadcast?
computer B
computer B and Router1
==> computer C and Router1
computer B, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E and Router1
19
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters the configuration shown to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to the switch. The Telnet connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The SSH version number is wrong.

SSH has been configured on the wrong line.

Telnet and SSH cannot be configured simultaneously.

==> The transport input command is configured incorrectly.

20
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology?
Cat-A
Cat-B
==> Cat-C
Cat-D
21
Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLANs will be pruned from switch SW3?
==> VLAN 10 and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, and VLAN 20
VLAN 1, VLAN 1002 through 1005
VLAN 1, VLAN 10, VLAN 20, VLAN 1002 through 1005

22

Refer to the exhibit. What does STATIC indicate in the output that is shown?

The switch will not allow any other device to connect to port Fa0/15.

==> Traffic destined for MAC address 0000.c123.5432 will be forwarded to Fa0/15.

This entry will be removed and refreshed every 300 seconds to keep it in the table.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/15.
When processing a frame, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.

23

Which three statements are regarding router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.)
==> requires the use of subinterfaces on the router
requires an access link between the router and Layer 2 switch
==> more cost-efficient and scalable than using multiple physical interfaces
requires each subinterface to be configured with the no shutdown command
==> can impact performance if many VLANs compete for bandwidth on a single router interface
makes troubleshooting the inter-VLAN routing configuration much less complex than when using multiple physical interfaces

24

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?


The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
==> The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain.
The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router.
25

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to remove the east-hosts VLAN and use the switch port from that VLAN in one of the existing VLANs. What two commands should be used when completely removing VLAN 2 from S1-Central while leaving the switch and all its interfaces operational? (Choose two.)

S1-Central# reload
S1-Central# erase flash:
==> S1-Central(config)# no vlan 2
S1-Central# delete flash:vlan.dat
==> S1-Central(config-if)# switchport access vlan 3

26
Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown?

==> The switch is sending and receiving data frames.
The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames.
The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives.
The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.
27
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information?
Disable VTP pruning on SW2.
Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode.
==> Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password.
Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.
28

What are three benefits of a hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
==> reduced contention for bandwidth
reduced size of the physical layout
==> increased fault tolerance of the network
elimination of the need for wiring closets
elimination of the need for layer three functionality
==> simplification of management and troubleshooting
29
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly identify information that could be associated with this output?(Choose three.)
==> Interface FastEthernet3/0/0 is subinterfaced.
==> A non-proprietary trunking protocol is in use.
==> The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
A shutdown command has been applied to interface FastEthernet3/0/0.
Interface FastEthernet3/0/0.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
An IP address should be applied to FastEthernet3/0/0 for correct data routing.

30
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of ==> SW1.

The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

31

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to implement inter-VLAN routing on a hierarchical network. On which devices should the inter-VLAN routing be configured?
AS1 and AS2
DS1 and DS2
==> Gateway and CS1
Gateway, CS1, DS1, and DS2
32

Which three statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.)

Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.
Enable password is configured as cisco.
==> All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.
==> The flash directory contains the IOS image.
VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.
==> All interfaces are set to auto-negotiation of speed and duplex.

33

Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
==> After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
==> If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

34

Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
==> The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.

35

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the interfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic with VLAN ID 0 is processed by interface fa0/0.
==> Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Both subinterfaces remain up with line protocol up, even if fa0/0 line protocol is down.
Subinterfaces use unique MAC addresses by adding the 802.1Q VLAN ID to the hardware address.
==> Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

36

What three tasks should be performed before moving a Catalyst switch to another VTP management domain? (Choose three.)
==> Select the correct VTP mode and version.
==> Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.
Download the VTP database from the VTP server in the new domain.
Configure the VTP server in the new domain to recognize the BID of the switch.
Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the new domain.
==> Verify that the switch has a lower configuration revision number than the other switches in the new domain.
37


Refer to the exhibit. Hosts A and B, connected to hub HB1, attempt to transmit a frame at the same time but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
only hosts A and B
==> only hosts A, B, and C
only hosts A, B, C, and D
only hosts A, B, C, and E

38
Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?
The service password-encryption command is entered at the privileged EXEC mode prompt.
The service password-encryption command encrypts only passwords for the console and VTY ports.
==> The service password-encryption command encrypts all previously unencrypted passwords in the running configuration.
To see the passwords encrypted by the service password-encryption command, enter the no service password-encryption command.


39
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are regarding what the cost value of 23 represents for Switch4? (Choose two.)
==> This cost represents the lowest cost path for Switch4 to the root switch.
A cost of 23 is the value being advertised out port 16 on the switch upstream (closer) to the root switch.
==> Switch4 adds the cost of a Fast Ethernet link to 23 to determine its total cost to reach the root switch.
Switch4 is connected via a Fast Ethernet link to an upstream switch that in turn is directly connected to the root switch via a Gigabit Ethernet link.
The root switch is advertising a cost of 23, which is lower than any other switch in the VLAN0001 spanning-tree domain.

40

Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.)

==> The switch ports are on different VLANs.

The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet.
==> The hosts are configured on different logical networks.
==> A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2.
The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN.
The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.

41

Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?

switch A
switch B
switch C
switch D
switch E
==> switch F
42
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision?

hub HB1
==> switch SW1
router R1
switch SW2
router R2
switch SW4
43
Top of Form
Why is it important that the network administrator consider the spanning-tree network diameter when choosing the root bridge?
The network diameter limitation is 9.
==> BPDUs may be discarded because of expiring timers.
The cabling distance between the switches is 100 meters.
The network diameter must be set to the number of meters of the cable between the root bridge and its farthest connected switch.

44
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured Router1 for inter-VLAN routing. A test of the network, however, shows that hosts on each VLAN can only access local resources and not resources on the other VLAN. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
==> Switch port Fa0/1 is not trunking.
Router interface Fa0/0 is possibly down.
No routing protocol is configured on Router1.
One of the router subinterfaces is possibly down.
45
What is the purpose of issuing the command switchport mode access on a switch interface?
disable port security
make the port operational
override the default port behavior
==> force the port to be a part of a single vlan

46


Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the information shown?
Only one VLAN is currently configured to use the trunk links.
The switch negotiated trunk links for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
A Cisco proprietary protocol is in use for interfaces Fa0/1 and Gi0/1.
==> Interfaces Gi0/1 and Fa0/1 are allowed to carry data from multiple VLANs .


47

Which identifier is used to keep track of frames that are destined for a particular wireless client?
AID
SSID
==> BSSID
ESSID

48


Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when frames that contain an unknown source address reach interface fa0/24?

A syslog message will be logged.
Fa0/24 will become error-disabled.
==> The incoming frames will be dropped.
The security violation count will be incremented.
49
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
client
root
server
==> transparent

50
Which method establishes an administrative connection for configuring the Linksys WRT300N wireless access point?
Associate with the access point and then open a HyperTerminal session with the access point.
Physically connect to the access point and then reboot the computer to launch the configuration software.
==> From a computer in the same IP subnet as the access point, enter the default IP address of the access point in a web browser.
Modify the TCP/IP properties of the computer connected to the access point so that it exists on the same network, and then reboot your computer to establish a connection.

51
Top of Form
What two methods can be used to remove MAC address table entries from a switch? (Choose two.)
The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries.
==> The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.
The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries.
Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port.

52


What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.)
requires less equipment
==> provides improved range
==> permits increased data rates
has a single-input and a single-output
needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

CCNA 3 final test

1


Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?

interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown

*** interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11

interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0



2


Refer to the graphic. If the switches are new and have been cabled as shown, which switch will become the root bridge?

*** SC

CE

JB

JP

JN

cannot be determined from the information given

3
A switch is operating in VTP client mode. What is true about the operations that can be performed by the switch?

VLANs that are created are not included in advertisements.

*** It can only adopt VLAN changes advertised from a VTP server.

It advertises topology changes out all trunk ports.

It can modify existing VLANs, but can not create new ones.

It can create and modify VLANs, but can not delete existing ones.


4
Why would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.)

*** to prevent routing information from being falsified

to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead

to assure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or IGRP updates

to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing

*** to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source


5
A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?

VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.

VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.

VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.

*** VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.

The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.


6
Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?

physical

distribution

data link

*** access

core


7


Refer to the graphic. What will be the result of DR elections in the network presented in the graphic using OSPF? (Choose three.)

RTC will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.

*** RTD will be DR of the 10.5.0.0/24 network.

RTA will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.

*** RTD will be DR of the 10.4.0.0/24 network.

*** RTB will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.

RTD will be DR of the 10.7.0.0/24 network.


8
Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard.

VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network.

All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces.

*** Changes made to the network can be communicated to all switches dynamically.


9
Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)

*** RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.

RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.

The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.

*** A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.

*** The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.

RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.


10
Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs?

access

backbone

*** distribution

core


11
A company has been assigned three Class C addresses and requires the use of supernetting in its addressing scheme. Which routing protocol could be used to configure the company routers to support supernetting? (Choose two.)

*** a classless routing protocol

a classful routing protocol

*** OSPF

IGRP

RIP v1


12


Refer to the graphic. What does the mode of FORWARDING mean in the spanning-tree process?

*** The switch is sending and receiving frames.

The switch is receiving frames, but cannot send frames.

The switch is participating in an election process.

The switch is only receiving BPDUs, not data, and is not sending any type of frames.


13


Refer to the graphic. The network administrator has determined that RTRA needs to be the DR because it is the more powerful router. Which of the following commands would be used to control the election process?

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ospf priority 0

*** RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
*** RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

RTRA(config)# ospf priority 1

RTRA(config)# ip ospf priority 255

RTRA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RTRA(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0


14
Which device provides connectivity between IP routed networks and subnetworks?

switch

bridge

*** router

active hub


15
Which statements describe features of full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)

*** allows packets to be received and sent simultaneously by a host

requires a minimum of two wires

*** reduces the number of collisions

allocates between 60 and 80 percent of available bandwidth in both directions

*** allocates 100 percent of the bandwidth in both directions

increases the number of broadcast domains


16


Refer to the graphic. Both routers are configured using RIP v1. Both routers are sending updates about the directly connected routes. R1 can successfully ping the serial interface of R2. The routing table on R1 does not contain any dynamically learned routes from R2, and the routing table on R2 shows no dynamically learned routes from R1. What is the problem?

Subnetting is not supported by RIP v1.

One of the routers needs a clock rate on the serial interface.

CIDR is not supported by RIP v1.

*** VLSM is not supported by RIP v1.


17


The network administrator shown in the graphic is connected to Switch3 using a LAN Ethernet connection. The administrator needs to verify configuration settings on the newly installed Switch2. What actions must the administrator take to access Switch2 with a web browser? (Choose three.)

Configure the hostname on Switch2.

*** Activate the HTTP service on Switch2.

Set the management VLAN password.

*** Configure IP addressing parameters on Switch2.

*** Establish host connectivity to Switch2.


18


Refer to the graphic. Router A and C are completely configured and the administrator needs to configure the routing protocol on Router B so that communication occurs throughout the network. Which of the following commands configures routing on Router B?

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 area 0

B(config)# router eigrp 1
B(config)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
B(config)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary

*** B(config)# router eigrp 1
*** B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0


19


Refer to the graphic. If the network is running OSPF, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between Router2 and the other routers shown in the diagram?

192.1.1.4/30 and 192.1.1.8/30

192.1.1.32/30 and 192.1.1.160/30

192.1.1.96/30 and 192.1.1.100/30

192.1.1.160/30 and 192.1.1.164/30

*** 192.1.1.192/30 and 192.1.1.196/30


20
Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)

Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.

Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.

*** Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.

*** Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.

After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.

*** Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.


21


Which command configures the static address shown in the graphic?

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table entry static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04

Switch1(config)#mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 VLAN 1

*** Switch1(config)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 interface fastethernet 0/4 VLAN 1

Switch1(config-if)#mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 VLAN 1 fastethernet 04


22
The following command was added to a router's configuration: ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.15.3. What will adding this command accomplish? (Choose two.)

A default route will be created.

*** A static route will be created.

*** Information about the 192.168.20.0 network learned dynamically will be ignored as long as the static route exists.

All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded out interface 192.168.20.245.

The route will be added as a RIP route in the routing table.


23


Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?

physical

data link

core

access

network

*** distribution


24


Which command is used to obtain the information presented in the above graphic?

show vlan ifindex

show vlan id

*** show vlan brief

show running-config


25


Refer to the graphic. Two Catalyst switches with ports configured for VLANs 3 and 4 are connected. The hosts on SW-A and SW-B need to communicate with one another. Which of the following commands is used to configure Port 1 on SW-B? Note that SW-B Port 1 used to have a host connected to it before the switch was connected to SW-A.

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# vlan 1 trunk
(config-if)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
*** (config-if)# switchport mode trunk

(config)# interface vlan 1
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q


26
How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships?

by the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers

by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors

by the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers

by comparing known routes to received updates

*** by the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers

by continuously monitoring the status of the router ports


27
What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?

elect a designated switch

use a router to locate a default gateway

*** elect a root bridge

determine the path cost of each active port on the switch


28


Refer to the graphic. Which commands would direct outbound traffic from R1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 200.1.1.0?

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0. 0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0

*** R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
*** ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

R1(config)# ip route 144.1.1.0 255.255.255.192 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 200.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1


29
Which switching method increases latency and reliability more than any other method?

cut-through

fast-forward

fragment-free

*** store-and-forward


30


Consider the networks shown in the graphic. Which of the following is the correct configuration for Router B if OSPF is being used as the routing protocol?

B(config)# router ospf 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

B(config)# router ospf 99
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 255.255.255.224 area 0
B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 area 0

*** B(config)# router ospf 1
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.64 0.0.0.31 area 0
*** B(config-router)# network 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0


31
What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch?

The switch is going through POST.

The switch is in the process of initializing ports.

The switch has failed POST.

*** The switch has passed POST and is working properly.


32


Refer to the graphic. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in the spanning-tree process?

highest Layer 2 address

highest priority number

highest path cost

lowest Layer 2 address

*** lowest priority number

lowest path cost


33
A network administrator is having problems with excessive collisions on the corporate network. If the network currently uses hubs, what is the most cost effective way to reduce collisions?

add additional hubs

*** replace hubs with switches

replace hubs with access points

add a router to every hub segment


34


One part of the network shown in the graphic uses IGRP and another part uses EIGRP. Which statement is true about this network?

IP traffic will not be routable from network 192.168.1.0 to network 10.1.1.0.

The autonomous system number in the IGRP network must be converted to an EIGRP autonomous system number.

*** The route to network 192.168.1.0 will be tagged as external by the EIGRP routers.

The IGRP router will classify routes learned from the EIGRP routers as internal.

The IGRP router will not detect EIGRP routers.

EIGRP is not backward compatible and the IGRP routes will not be detected.


35
Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.)

*** hop count as a metric

classless routing

*** use split horizon

*** maximum hop count is 15

broadcast updates

no authentication


36
When configuring the networks that need to be advertised on a router using EIGRP, which of the following can be configured on the router? (Choose three.)

*** the network number

subnet mask

*** wildcard mask

process number

area ID

*** autonomous system number


37


Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem ｂａｓｅd on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch?

The switch port 1 is not set to access mode.

*** The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down.

The router is not configured for trunking.

The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps.


38


Refer to the graphic above. The network has stabilized and SW-F has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. Network traffic indicates that SW-A would be a better selection for the root bridge. How can the network administrator accomplish this task?

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a lower value

change the bridge priority of SW-F to a higher value

*** change the bridge priority of SW-A to a lower value

change the bridge priority of SW-A to a higher value


39


Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands is used to configure switch port 2 for the host on VLAN 2?

*** (config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
*** (config-if)# switchport mode access
*** (config-if)# switchport access vlan 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode access 2

(config)# interface vlan 2
(config-subif)# switchport mode trunk dot1q

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/2
(config-if)# vlan 2


40
Which of the following statements are true about routers that are running EIGRP? (Choose three.)

*** They can support multiple routed protocols.

They can support only link-state protocols.

They send their entire routing tables to neighboring routers.

*** They send partial routing updates in response to topology changes.

They send routing updates to all other routers in the network.

*** They use hello packets to inform neighboring routers of their status.


41


A network administrator located at the East site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Corporate site. The show hosts command is entered on the East router but does not produce any output. Which command can be used to gain access to the Corporate LAN switch assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 172.16.15.5/24?

dial Corporate 172.16.15.5

line vty 0 4
telnet

telnet Corporate

*** telnet 172.16.15.5


42


What is an advantage of building a network such as the one shown in the graphic?

*** provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure

provides alternate routes when spanning tree has a problem

provides alternate network routes when the Spanning Tree Protocol is converging

provides concurrent paths for faster data transfers


43


What type of connectivity (refer to point A in the graphic) is required between SW1 and SW2? Note that SW1 has VLANs 2, 3, 4, and 5 configured and SW2 has VLANs 5, 6, 7, and 8 configured. Also, the computers on the same VLAN need the ability to communicate with one another.

access

channel

interVLAN

intraVLAN

*** trunk


44


Refer to the graphic and the following configurations from the routers. Router A is not receiving any OSPF routes from the other routers. ｂａｓｅd on the Router A and Router B configurations, what is the problem?

A# show running-config
--output omitted--
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.65 255.255.255.192
interface Serial 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
clockrate 64000
router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

B# show running-config
--output omitted--
interface Fastethernet 0/0
ip address 192.168.10.129 255.255.255.192
interface Serial0/0
ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.255.252
interface Serial0/1
ip address 192.168.10.5 255.255.255.252
clockrate 56000
router ospf 2
network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 0

*** duplicate IP address

mismatched OSPF process IDs

mismatched OSPF timers

mismatched clock rates


45


Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B are running EIGRP and Router C is running IGRP. Which of the following is necessary for Router C to automatically see routes from Routers A and B?

Routers B and C must use the same autonomous system number, but Router A can use a different autonomous system number.

*** Routers A, B, and C must all use the same autonomous system number.

Routers B and C must both use the redistribute igrp as_number command.

No commands are necessary. EIGRP routes are always seen by IGRP routers.


46
Which of the following is true about Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.)

eliminates physical loops in network topologies

*** eliminates logical loops in network topologies

can only be used in networks where routers are installed

*** can only be used in networks where switches are incorporated into the design

can only be used in networks where both routers and switches are used


47
A company with the address 192.168.3.0 needs an address scheme that supports ten networks with a maximum of seven hosts per segment. The network administrator wants to use VLSM for the most efficient use of addresses. What is a valid address to assign to one of the LAN links?

192.168.3.192

*** 192.168.3.209

192.168.3.223

192.168.3.225

192.168.3.235


48
Which of the following commands can be used to configure the default management VLAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# ip address 10.0.0.1 255.255.255.0
(config-if)# no shutdown

*** (config)# interface vlan 1
*** (config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
*** (config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface management vlan
(config-subif)# ip address 10.0.0.3 255.255.255.0
(config-subif)# no shutdown

(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
(config-if)# switchport mode vlan 1
(config-if)# no shutdown


49
When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

when a router has more than three active interfaces

*** when a router has discontiguous networks attached

when a router has less than five active interfaces


50


Consider the network shown in the graphic. Which of the following IP addresses would be valid for a company that is leasing a single Class C network address and using VLSM for maximum efficiency?

200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.176 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.196 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.80 /27 for the 25 users
200.1.1.96 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.128 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.132 /30 for the second pair of serial links

*** 200.1.1.64 /26 for the 50 users
*** 200.1.1.128 /27 for the 25 users
*** 200.1.1.160 /28 for the 10 users
*** 200.1.1.176 /30 for one pair of serial links
*** 200.1.1.180 /30 for the second pair of serial links

200.1.1.0 /26 for the 50 users
200.1.1.64 /26 for the 25 users
200.1.1.128 /27 for the 10 users
200.1.1.192 /30 for one pair of serial links
200.1.1.192 /30 for the second pair of serial links

ccna 2 final new version!

Help me answer this version. Thanks !

Take Assessment - ERouting Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: Routing Protocols and Concepts (Version 4.0)

1 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about router R2?

The routing table content indicates that interface S0/0/0 is administratively down.

The route for 172.16.1.0 is a static route.

A packet that is destined for a host on the 172.16.3.0 network is forwarded without performing a routing table lookup.

The packets that are routed to network 172.16.1.0 require two routing table lookups.

2 Refer to the exhibit. A router learns a route to the 192.168.6.0 network, as shown in the output of the show ip rip database command. However, upon running the show ip route command, the network administrator sees that the router has installed a different route to the 192.168.6.0 network learned via EIGRP. What could be the reason for the missing RIP route?

Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a lower administrative distance.

Compared to EIGRP, RIP has a higher metric value for the route.

Compared to RIP, the EIGRP route has fewer hops.

Compared to RIP, EIGRP has a faster update timer.

3 Refer to the exhibit. All routers are properly configured to use the EIGRP routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Which statement correctly describes the path that the traffic will use from the 10.1.1.0/24 network to the 10.1.2.0/24 network?

It will use the A-D path only.

It will use the path A-D, and the paths A-C-D and A-B-D will be retained as the backup paths.

It will use all the paths equally in a round-robin fashion.

The traffic will be load-balanced between A-B-D and A-C-D.

4 Refer to the exhibit. Which two components are required to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

CSU/DSU device

DTE device

DCE device

crossover cable

V.35 cable

5 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator wants to reduce the size of the routing table of R1. Which partial routing table entry in R1 represents the route summary for R2, without including any additional subnets?

10.0.0.0/16 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.5.0.0[90/205891] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 4 subnets

D 10.5.0.0[90/205198] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

10.0.0.0/22 is subnetted, 1 subnets

D 10.5.0.0[90/205901] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

10.0.0.0/8 is subnetted, 4 subnets

D 10.5.0.0[90/205001] via 192.168.1.2, S0/0/0

6 Refer to the exhibit. Which router is advertising subnet 172.16.1.32/28?

Router1

Router2

Router3

Router4

7 A router has learned two equal cost paths to a remote network via the EIGRP and RIP protocols. Both protocols are using their default configurations. Which path to the remote network will be installed in the routing table?

the path learned via EIGRP

the path learned via RIP

the path with the highest metric value

both paths with load balancing

8 Which two statements are true about the EIGRP successor route? (Choose two.)

It is saved in the topology table for use if the primary route fails.

It may be backed up by a feasible successor route.

It is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to the destination.

It is flagged as active in the routing table.

After the discovery process has occurred, the successor route is stored in the neighbor table.

9 Refer to the exhibit. Both routers are using the RIPv2 routing protocol and static routes are undefined. R1 can ping 192.168.2.1 and 10.1.1.2, but is unable to ping 192.168.4.1.

What is the reason for the ping failure?

The serial interface between two routers is down.

R2 is not forwarding the routing updates.

The 192.168.4.0 network is not included in the RIP configuration of R2.

RIPv1 needs to be configured.

10 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is adding a new subnet of 50 hosts to R3. Which subnet address should be used for the new subnet that provides enough addresses while wasting a minimum of addresses?

192.168.1.0/24

192.168.1.48 /28

192.168.1.32/27

192.168.1.64/26

11 In a lab test environment, a router has learned about network 172.16.1.0 through four different dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach this network?

D 172.16.1.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

O 172.16.1.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Serial0/0/0

R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Serial0/0/0

I 172.16.1.0/24 [100/1192] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Serial0/0/0

12 Refer to the exhibit. To implement the RIPv2 protocol, the network administrator runs the commands as displayed. However, the show ip protocol command fails to display any output. How can the administrator solve the problem that is indicated by the lack of output from this command?

Include the default-information originate command.

Include the no auto-summary command.

Specify the network for which RIP routing has to be enabled.

Implement RIPv2 authentication in the network.

13 What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

It forwards data packets toward their destination.

It forwards the packet to the destination if the TTL value is 0.

It changes the destination IP address of data packets before forwarding them to an exit interface.

It determines the best path based on the destination MAC address.

It acts as an intersection between multiple IP networks.

14 How does route poisoning prevent routing loops?

New routing updates are ignored until the network has converged.

Failed routes are advertised with a metric of infinity.

A route is marked as unavailable when its Time to Live is exceeded.

The unreachable route is cleared from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.

15 Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running the same routing protocol. Based on the exhibit and its displayed commands, which statement is true?

Routers B, C, and D have no access to the Internet.

The link to the ISP will be excluded from the routing protocol process.

A default route must be configured on every router.

The wildcard mask is incorrectly configured.

16 Refer to the exhibit. While trying to diagnose a routing problem in the network, the network administrator runs the debug ip rip command. What can be determined from the output of this command?

The router will be unable to ping 192.168.1.2.

The router has two interfaces that participate in the RIP process.

The router will forward the updates for 192.168.1.0 on interface Serial0/0/1.

The router is not originating routes for 172.16.1.0.

17 Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are ultimate routes?

3

4

5

7

18 Refer to the exhibit. Which summarization should R1 use to advertise its networks to R2?

192.168.1.0/24

192.168.0.0/24

192.168.0.0/22

192.168.1.0/22

19 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is accessing router R1 from the console port. Once the administrator is connected to the router, which password should the administrator enter at the R1> prompt to access the privileged EXEC mode?

Cisco001

Cisco123

Cisco789

Cisco901

20 Refer to the exhibit. R2 is configured correctly. The network administrator has configured R1 as shown. Which two facts can be deduced from the configuration of R1? (Choose two.)

R1 will forward the route information for subnet 192.168.100.0/30.

The administrative distance has been set to 50 on R1.

R1 will not forward route information for subnet 192.168.100.4.0/30.

R1 will forward the EGRP update for subnet 10.10.10.0/30.

Autosummarization must be enabled.

21 A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

The IOS image is corrupt.

Cisco IOS is missing from flash memory.

The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

The POST process has detected hardware failure.

22 Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)

The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.

The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.

The router maintains the same source and destination IP.

The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.

The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.

The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

23 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown, and all interfaces are functioning correctly. A ping from R1 to 172.16.1.1 fails. What could be the cause of this problem?

The serial interface on R1 is configured incorrectly.

The default route is configured incorrectly.

The default-information originate command must be issued on R1.

Autosummarization must be disabled on R1.

24 Which statement is true about the RIPv1 protocol?

It is a link-state routing protocol.

It excludes subnet information from the routing updates.

It uses the DUAL algorithm to insert backup routes into the topology table.

It uses classless routing as the default method on the router.

25 Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are unable to establish an adjacency. What two configuration changes will correct the problem? (Choose two.)

Set a lower priority on R2.

Configure the routers in the same area.

Set a lower cost on R2 compared to R1.

Add a backup designated router to the network.

Match the hello and dead timers on both routers.

26 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Internet. What is the reason for this?

The IP address of host A is incorrect.

The default gateway of host A is incorrect.

The Fa0/1 interfaces of the two routers are configured for different subnets.

The subnet mask for the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect.

27 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on the exhibited output? (Choose two.)

The administrative distance of EIGRP has been set to 50.

All routes are stable.

The show ip eigrp topology command has been run on R1.

The serial interface between the two routers is down.

Each route has one feasible successor.

28 Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured properly and all interfaces are functional. Router R1 has been installed recently. Host A is unable to ping host B.

Which procedure can resolve this problem?

Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of the serial interface on R1.

Configure a default route on R1 with the exit interface Fa0/0 on R1.

Configure a static route on R1 using the IP address of S0/0/0 on R2.

Configure a default route on R1 using the IP address of Fa0/0 on R2.

29 Refer to the exhibit. The 10.4.0.0 network fails. What mechanism prevents R2 from receiving false update information regarding the 10.4.0.0 network?

split horizon

hold-down timers

route poisoning

triggered updates

30 What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)

The routers must elect a designated router.

The routers must agree on the network type.

The routers must use the same dead interval.

The routers must exchange link state requests.

The routers must exchange database description packets.

31 Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)

DRAM - loads the bootstrap

RAM - stores the operating system

Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup

*NVRAM - stores the configuration file

ROM - stores the backup configuration file

*POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

32 Refer to the exhibit. A ping between the serial interfaces of R1 and R2 is successful, but a ping between their FastEthernet interfaces fails. What is the reason for this problem?

The FastEthernet interface of R1 is disabled.

One of the default routes is configured incorrectly.

A routing protocol is not configured on both routers.

The default gateway has not been configured on both routers.

33 Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are addressed and functioning correctly. The network administrator runs the tracert command on host A. Which two facts could be responsible for the output of this command? (Choose two.)

The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.

The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R1.

The entry for 10.1.1.0/30 is missing from the routing table of R2.

The entry for 192.168.1.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R1.

The entry for 192.168.2.0/24 is missing from the routing table of R2.

34 Which routing protocol maintains a topology table separate from the routing table?

IGRP

RIPv1

RIPv2

EIGRP

35 Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be derived from this output? (Choose two.)

Three network devices are directly connected to Router2.

The serial interface between Router2 and Router3 is up.

Router1 and Router3 are directly connected.

Six devices are up and running on the network.

Layer 3 functionality between routers is configured properly.

36 Refer to the exhibit. Although R2 is configured correctly, host A is unable to access the Internet. Which two static routes can be configured on R1 to enable Internet connectivity for host A? (Choose two.)

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/0

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Fa0/1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.2

ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.1

ip route 209.165.202.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.2

37 Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. The two networks 10.1.1.0/29 and 10.1.1.16/29 are unable to access each other. What can be the cause of this problem?

Because RIPv1 is a classless protocol, it does not support this access.

RIPv1 does not support discontiguous networks.

RIPv1 does not support load balancing.

RIPv1 does not support automatic summarization.

38 Refer to the exhibit. The show cdp neighbors command was run at R1. Which two facts about the newly detected device can be determined from the output? (Choose two.)

ABCD is a router that is connected to R1.

ABCD is a non-CISCO device that is connected to R1.

The device is connected at the Serial0/0/1 interface of R1.

R1 is connected at the S0/0/1 interface of device ABCD.

ABCD does not support switching capability.

39 What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?

It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.

It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers.

It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in the DBD.

It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.

40 Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)

The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.

Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.

The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.

Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.

Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.

No default route has been configured.

41 All routers in a network are configured in a single OSPF area with the same priority value. No loopback interface has been set on any of the routers. Which secondary value will the routers use to determine the router ID?

The highest MAC address among the active interfaces of the network will be used.

There will be no router ID until a loopback interface is configured.

The highest IP address among the active FastEthernet interfaces that are running OSPF will be used.

The highest IP address among the active interfaces will be used.

42 Which two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)

the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface

the highest IP address of any logical interface

the highest IP address of any physical interface

the default gateway IP address

the priority value of 1 on any physical interface

43 Refer to the exhibit. The routers are properly configured using a dynamic routing protocol with default settings, and the network is fully converged. Router A is forwarding data to router E. Which statement is true about the routing path?

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will determine that all paths have equal cost.

If the network uses the RIP protocol, router A will update only the A-C-E path in its routing table.

If the network uses the EIGRP routing protocol, router A will determine that path A-D-E has the lowest cost.

If both RIP and EIGRP protocols are configured on router A, the router will use the route information that is learned by the RIP routing protocol.

44 A network administrator uses the RIP routing protocol to implement routing within an autonomous system. What are two characteristics of this protocol? (Choose two.)

It uses the Bellman-Ford algorithm to determine the best path.

It displays an actual map of the network topology.

It offers rapid convergence in large networks.

*It periodically sends complete routing tables to all connected devices.

It is beneficial in complex and hierarchically designed networks.

45 Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)

*10.0.0.0/8

64.100.0.0/16

128.107.0.0/16

172.16.40.0/24

192.168.1.0/24

*192.168.2.0/24

46 A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?

A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48

B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64

A(config)# router rip

A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32

B(config)# router rip

B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0

A(config)# no router rip

47 Which statement is true about the metrics used by routing protocols?

A metric is a value used by a particular routing protocol to compare paths to remote networks.

A common metric is used by all routing protocols.

The metric with the highest value is installed in the routing table.

The router may use only one parameter at a time to calculate the metric.

48 Refer to the exhibit. Two routers are unable to establish an adjacency. What is the possible cause for this?

The two routers are connected on a multiaccess network.

The hello and dead intervals are different on the two routers.

They have different OSPF router IDs.

They have different process IDs.

49 Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)

It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.

It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to the poisoned route.

It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was received.

It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of time.

It limits the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded.

50 Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R3 use different routing protocols with default administrative distance values. All devices are properly configured and the destination network is advertised by both protocols. Which path will be used to transmit the data packets between PC1 and PC2?

The packets will travel via R2-R1.

The packets will travel via R2-R3.

The traffic will be load-balanced between two paths — via R2-R1 and via R2-R3.

The packets will travel via R2-R3, and the other path via R2-R1 will be retained as the backup path.

51 Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency. What action should be taken to solve this problem?

Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.

Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.

Configure the same hello interval between the routers.

Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.

52 Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 2?

It is the administrative distance of the routing protocol.

It is the number of hops between R2 and the 192.168.8.0/24 network.

It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.

It is the convergence time measured in seconds.

53 Refer to the exhibit. The hosts that are connected to R2 are unable to ping the hosts that are connected to R1. How can this problem be resolved?

Configure the router ID on both routers.

Configure the R2 router interfaces for area 0.

Configure a loopback interface on both routers.

Configure the proper subnet masks on the router interfaces.

54 Refer to the exhibit. The network has three connected routers: R1, R2, and R3. The routes of all three routers are displayed. All routers are operational and pings are not blocked on this network. Which ping will fail?

from R1 to 172.16.1.1

from R1 to 192.168.3.1

from R2 to 192.168.1.1

from R2 to 192.168.3.1

55 Which two statements are true for link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)

*Routers that run a link-state protocol can establish a complete topology of the network.

Routers in a multipoint network that run a link-state protocol can exchange routing tables.

Routers use only hop count for routing decisions.

The shortest path first algorithm is used.

Split horizon is used to avoid routing loops.

56 Refer to the exhibit. The output of the show ip route command for router R1 is displayed. What action will the router take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.5?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet to interface Serial0/0/0.

It will determine the route for the packet through a routing protocol.

It will forward the packet to the default gateway.

57 Refer to the exhibit. What action will R2 take for a packet that is destined for 192.168.2.0?

It will drop the packet.

It will forward the packet via the S0/0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet via the Fa0/0 interface.

It will forward the packet to R1.