CCNA 1 Final Exam 640 - 802

www.ccna4u.net || www.ccna4u.info || www.ccna4u.org || www.9tut.info

This Test is 85% Correct

1. A PC can not connect to any remote websites, ping its default gateway, or ping a printer that is functioning properly on the local network segment. Which action will verify that the TCP/IP stack is functioning correctly on this PC?

--> Use the ping 127.0.0.1 command at the command prompt.


2. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?

--> A, B, D, G

3. Refer to the exhibit. When computer A sends a frame to computer D, what computers receive the frame?

--> only computer D






4. Which password is automatically encrypted when it is created?

--> enable secret

5. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

--> TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.

--> TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

--> TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.


6. Which type of media is immune to EMI and RFI? (Choose two.)

--> 100 Base-FX

--> 1000 Base LX


7. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is working on a network problem that requires verification of the router LAN interface. What address should be pinged from this host to confirm that the router interface is operational?

--> 192.168.254.1


8. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending email between clients.
Select the list below that correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram.

--> 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

9. Refer to the exhibit. What function does router RT_A need to provide to allow Internet access for hosts in this network?

--> address translation

10. Refer to the exhibit. The network containing router B is experiencing problems. A network associate has isolated the issue in this network to router B? What action can be preformed to correct the network issue?

--> issue the no shutdown command on interface FastEthernet 0/1


11. Which three IPv4 addresses represent a broadcast for a subnet? (Choose three.)

--> 172.16.4.63 /26

--> 172.16.4.191 /26

--> 172.16.4.95 /27


12. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)

--> A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

--> All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.

--> After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired.

13. In a Cisco IOS device, where is the startup-configuration file stored?

--> NVRAM

14. A routing issue has occurred in you internetwork. Which of the following type of devices should be examined to isolate this error?

--> router


15. Which OSI layer protocol does IP rely on to determine whether packets have been lost and to request retransmission?

--> transport


16. Due to a security violation, the router passwords must be changed. What information can be learned from the following configuration entries? (Choose two.)

--> The entries specify four Telnet lines for remote access.
The entries set the console and Telnet password to "c13c0".
Telnet access will be denied because the Telnet configuration is incomplete.
--> Access will be permitted for Telnet using "c13c0" as the password.

17. Which prompt represents the appropriate mode used for the copy running-config startup-config command ?

--> Switch-6J#


18. Which combination of network id and subnet mask correctly identifies all IP addresses from 172.16.128.0 through 172.16.159.255?

--> 172.16.128.0 255.255.224.0

19. When must a router serial interface be configured with the clock rate command?

--> when the interface is functioning as a DCE device

20. When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?

--> upper-layer connection-oriented protocols


21. A technician is asked to secure the privileged EXEC mode of a switch by requiring a password. Which type of password would require this login and be considered the most
secure?

--> enable secret


22. Refer to the exhibit. What is required on host A for a network technician to create the initial configuration on RouterA?

--> a terminal emulation program


23. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator remotely accesses the CLI of RouterB from PC1. Which two statements are true about the application layer protocol that is used to make this connection? (Choose two.)

-->The connection type is called a VTY session.

--> The application name is the same for the service, protocol, and client.


24. The Layer 4 header contains which type of information to aid in the delivery of data?

--> service port number


25. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined about the exhibited topology? (Choose two.)

--> A single broadcast domain is present

--> Five collision domains exist.


26. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is trying to determine the correct IP address configuration for Host A. What is a valid configuration for Host A?

--> IP address: 192.168.100.20; Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240; Default Gateway: 192.168.100.17


27. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and cable 2 have the ends wired for specific physical layer requirements. The table lists each segment by number and the cable which has been installed by the network technician between the network components on that segment. From the data
given, which segments have the correct cable installed? (Choose three.)


--> segment1

--> segment3

--> segment4


28. What is true regarding network layer addressing? (Choose three.)

--> uses a flat structure

--> uniquely identifies each host

--> contains a network portion


29. Refer to the exhibit. A router, whose table is shown, receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.1.4. How will router treat the packet?


--> The packet will be forwarded to the destination host.



30. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the information that is represented in the header? (Choose two.)


--> The destination port indicates a Telnet session.

--> The return segment will contain a source port of 23.



31. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct destination socket number for a web page request from Host A to the web server?


--> 198.133.219.25:80
http://www.cisco.com


32. During the encapsulation process, which identifiers are added at the transport layer?


--> two applications communicating the data



33. Refer to the exhibit. A student has wired each end of a CAT 5e cable as shown. What is the result? (Choose two.)


--> The cable is suitable for use as a Fast Ethernet crossover.

--> The cable is suitable for use between two 100 Mbps Auto-MDIX capable switches.


34. Refer to the exhibit. Assume all devices are using default configurations. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?


--> 3



35. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the IP configuration that is shown, what is the reason that Host A and Host B are unable to communicate outside the local network?


--> The gateway address was assigned a broadcast address.



36. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?

--> Connection 1 - straight-through cable , Connection 2 - crossover cable , Connection 3 - straight-through cable



37. Refer to the exhibit. What does the IP address 192.168.33.2 represent?

--> The host's primary domain name server.



38. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the information that is given? (Choose two.)


--> The destination port indicates that an HTTP session has been initiated.

--> The data listed is associated with the transport layer.


39. Which of the following are the address ranges of the private IP addresses? (Choose three.)

--> 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

--> 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

--> 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255



40. Which two functions of the OSI model occur at layer two? (Choose two.)


--> physical addressing

--> media access control



41. Which range of port numbers are reserved for services that are commonly used by applications that run on servers?

--> 0 to 1023


42. As network administrator, what is the subnet mask that allows 510 hosts given the IP address 172.30.0.0?


--> 255.255.254.0



43. Refer to the exhibit. The tracert command is initiated from PC1 to the destination PC4. Which device will send a response to the initial packet from PC1?


--> Athens


44. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is transmitting data to host B. What addresses will host A use to for the destination IP and MAC addresses in this communication?


--> Destination MAC: EEEE:EEEE:EEEE Destination IP: 172.22.0.75


45. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology best describes the exhibited network?


--> star


46. Examine the graphic with current configurations. Host A in the Clerical offices failed and was replaced. Although a ping to 127.0.0.1 was successful, the replacement computer can not access the company network. What is the likely cause of the problem?


--> subnet mask incorrectly entered



47. Refer to the exhibit. With the router running NAT, what IP addresses can be applied to the computer to allow access to the Internet? (Choose three.)


--> 192.168.18.49

--> 192.168.18.52

-->192.168.18.59



48. Refer to the exhibit. What three statements are true about the IP configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)



--> The address that is assigned to the computer represents private addressing.

--> The computer is unable to communicate outside of the local network.

--> The prefix of the computer address is /27.



49. Refer to the exhibit. Host A attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured with the source MAC address 0050.7320.D632 and the destination MAC address 0030.8517.44C4. The packet inside the captured frame has an IP source address 192.168.7.5, and the destination IP address is 192.168.219.24. At which point in the network was this packet captured?

--> leaving Dallas


50. Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?


--> transport

CCNA 3 Final latest (90%)

http://ccna-keys.blogspot.com Tke Assessment - ESwitching Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

1	Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem? The switch must be configured with SSH version 1. The transport input command must specify Telnet access. The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access. The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
2	Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SWT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology? It is sending and receiving data frames. It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames. It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives. It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

3	Which parameter is a specific frequency at which a wireless access point will operate? BSS WEP SSID ad hoc channel
4	What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config tftp://172.16.2.155/tokyo-config? The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server. The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1. The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config. The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.

5	What identifier in the BPDU creates a unique BID for a switch? IP address MAC address bridge priority VLAN ID port priority
6	Refer to the exhibit. A wireless infrastructure has been established in a company building as shown. The design goal was to allow roaming between the three APs for handheld devices. However, the devices lose connectivity when the users roam. How can this problem be fixed? Assign different SSIDs to each AP. Reconfigure all APs to the same channel. Use the same BSSID address for each AP. Reposition the APs so that each area of signal strength overlaps the neighbor by at least 10-15%.

7	Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement? Use SSH version 1. Reconfigure the RSA key. Configure SSH on a different line. Modify the transport input command.
8	How does Spanning Tree Protocol aid network architecture? allows for redundant links by eliminating loops provides greater scalability by eliminating collisions reduces switch processor load by reducing broadcast traffic on trunk links reduces administrative overhead by sharing VLAN databases between switches across the network

9	Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host? 192.168.1.22 /28 192.168.1.31 /28 192.168.1.32 /28 192.168.1.52 /28 192.168.1.63 /28
10	In setting up a wireless infrastructure network, which device is used to associate a client computer to the network? an Ethernet switch a wireless access point another wireless computer a hard-wired computer on the network

11	Which statement about STP network diameter is correct? STP diameters are restricted by convergence times. Layer 2 root elections should be optimized by adjusting BPDU timers to match network diameter. Using lower bandwidth connections between switches will allow STP to have a larger network diameter. Portfast can be used to increase the allowable switched network diameter because it disables the forward delay and maximum age timers.
12	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN that are connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem? Introduce a Layer 3 device in the topology. Configure both switches in VTP transparent mode to allow them to share VLAN information. Reconfigure the fa0/1 interface on switch SW1 with a static trunk configuration. Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to FastEthernet 0/1 on SW1 and FastEthernet 0/2 on SW2.

13	Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1? Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30. Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port. Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
14	Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.) After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked. Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist. The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision. Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media. If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

15	What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.) Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment. The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch. The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs. Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router. The router should be configured as the VTP server.

16	Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is properly configured for router on a stick inter-VLAN routing, but PC1 is unable to ping PC2. What needs to be done to resolve the problem? Rename VLAN1. Connect one more port of S1 to R1. Configure the Fa0/1 port of S1 as a trunk port. Move the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to another VLAN.
17	Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces? zero one two four

18	Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet? The router will drop the packet. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
19	Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown? This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator. When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port. Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18. The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

20	Which parameter is associated with wireless authentication? shared key SSID ad hoc channel
21	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal? all hosts that are shown only hosts B and C only hosts A, B, and C only hosts A, B, C, and D only hosts A, D, E, and F only hosts D, E, and F

22	What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN? Connect each PC directly to a router port. Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network. Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches. Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
23	Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLAN(s) will be allowed on the trunk to SW2 by SW4? VLAN 20 only VLAN 10 and VLAN 30 VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 VLAN 1, VLAN 20 and VLANs 1002 through 1005

24	What is the correct order in which the STP components are chosen? designated ports, nondesignated ports, root bridge, root ports nondesignated ports, designated ports, root ports, root bridge root bridge, root ports, designated ports, nondesignated ports root ports, root bridge, nondesignated ports, designated ports
25	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision? hub HB1 switch SW1 router R1 switch SW2 router R2 switch SW4

26	Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.) The switch ports are on different VLANs. The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet. The hosts are configured on different logical networks. A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2. The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN. The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
27	Which statement is correct about STP architecture? Spanning Tree Protocol will guarantee a loop free Layer 2 topology. Spanning Tree Protocol guarantees the shortest path to destination networks. The switch with the highest priority will be assigned the lowest BID in the root election. The first step in the spanning-tree election process is to determine the root port. To select designated ports, the spanning-tree algorithm must determine the longest contiguous path from the root bridge.

28	While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide? This allows the switch to host web pages for the network. This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet. This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch. This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.
29	What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.) requires less equipment provides improved range permits increased data rates has a single-input and a single-output needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

30

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to Switch1. However, the SSH connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem? The RSA key has been removed. SSH has been configured on the wrong line. The transport input command is applied incorrectly. The domain name has been configured in the wrong configuration mode.

31	Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem? SW1(config)# vtp version 1 SW2(config)# vtp mode client SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1 SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent
32	Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting? user EXEC mode privileged EXEC mode global configuration mode interface configuration mode

33	Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem? Relocate the APs closer to each other. Increase the distance between the clients. Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11. Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
34	A switch that is using port-based memory buffering receives two incoming frames on the same port. The destination port for the first frame that is received is busy. How will the switch handle the second frame that it received? The second frame will have to wait to be delivered even if its destination port is available. The second frame will be delivered to the memory buffer for its destination port. The second frame will be placed in a common memory buffer to await delivery. The second frame will be dropped.

35	Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem? There is a native VLAN mismatch. The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk. The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked. VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
36	Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem? All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2. SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain. VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1. The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

37	Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem? The command contained a syntax error. The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer. The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch. The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.
38	Refer to the exhibit. Which two options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose two.) Routing between the 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.3.0 networks will not succeed until a routing protocol is configured on the router. VLANs have not been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces. The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design. Trunking has been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces. An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.

39	Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a "password required, but none set" message when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem? The enable secret password was not set. S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines. S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines. The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords. The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
40	Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured R1 and S1 as displayed. However, PC1 is unable to access PC2. What is the likely problem? No routing protocol is configured on R1. The Fa0/1 port of S1 is not a trunk port. The default gateway address is not set on S1. Only one physical link between S1 and R1 is configured for inter-VLAN routing.

41	Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced? Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s. Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2. Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch. Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
42	Refer to the exhibit. What are two reasons for the Fa0/24 port being placed in the blocking state? (Choose two.) This switch is not the root bridge. The Fa0/24 port is administratively down. STP has detected links that create a loop. There is a change in the VTP configuration. The Fa0/24 port is overloaded with too much traffic for its configured bandwidth.

43	Which three actions are performed during the boot sequence of a Cisco switch? (Choose three.) The boot loader uses the self-contained switch operating system to boot the switch. The boot loader retrieves diagnostics routines via TFTP. The boot loader performs POST. The boot loader is loaded from RAM. The boot loader initializes the flash file system that is used to boot the system. The boot loader loads the default operating system if the flash-based operating system is corrupt or missing.
44	Which combination is required to establish a connection to initially configure the Linksys WRT300N wireless access device? a computer with a console connection to the WRT300N a computer with a wireless connection to the WRT300N a computer with an AUX port connection to the WRT300N a computer configured in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and a direct cable connection to it

45	Refer to the exhibit. RTB is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. RTB can ping computer A but cannot ping computer B. What is a possible cause of this failure? Port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN. RTB does not have an active routing protocol. The IP address of computer B is in the wrong logical network. Router interface Fa0/1 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

46	In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements? client root server transparent
47	Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information? Disable VTP pruning on SW2. Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode. Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password. Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

48	Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router? WEP identifies the wireless LAN. WEP allows the access point to inform clients of its presence. WEP translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names. WEP encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point. WEP ensures that only authenticated users are allowed access to the WLAN. WEP translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.
49	Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y? QoS routing trunking VPN

50	Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with the default bridge priority. Which port will act as a non-designated port if all links are operating at the same bandwidth? Fa0/1 interface of switch A Fa0/2 interface of switch A Fa0/1 interface of switch B Fa0/2 interface of switch B Fa0/1 interface of switch C Fa0/2 interface of switch C
51	What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks? DSSS OFDM SSID WPA

52

Refer to the exhibit. Computer D sends a broadcast message. Which devices will process the broadcast message? computer E computer D and computer E computer D, computer E, and Router1 computer B and computer E computer B, computer E, and Router1 computer C, computer D, and computer E computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1 computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1