CCNA 3 Final latest (90%)

http://ccna-keys.blogspot.com Tke Assessment - ESwitching Final Exam - CCNA Exploration: LAN Switching and Wireless (Version 4.0)

1	Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem? The switch must be configured with SSH version 1. The transport input command must specify Telnet access. The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access. The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
2	Refer to the exhibit. How is port Gi1/1 on SWT-A functioning in the spanning-tree topology? It is sending and receiving data frames. It is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames. It is participating in the election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives. It is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data.

3	Which parameter is a specific frequency at which a wireless access point will operate? BSS WEP SSID ad hoc channel
4	What will be the effect of the command S1# copy system:running-config tftp://172.16.2.155/tokyo-config? The IOS will be copied to the TFTP server. The configuration file named tokyo-config will overwrite the startup configuration file on S1. The running configuration file on S1 will be saved via TFTP to a file named tokyo-config. The contents of NVRAM on S1 will become the startup configuration file on the tokyo switch.

5	What identifier in the BPDU creates a unique BID for a switch? IP address MAC address bridge priority VLAN ID port priority
6	Refer to the exhibit. A wireless infrastructure has been established in a company building as shown. The design goal was to allow roaming between the three APs for handheld devices. However, the devices lose connectivity when the users roam. How can this problem be fixed? Assign different SSIDs to each AP. Reconfigure all APs to the same channel. Use the same BSSID address for each AP. Reposition the APs so that each area of signal strength overlaps the neighbor by at least 10-15%.

7	Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement? Use SSH version 1. Reconfigure the RSA key. Configure SSH on a different line. Modify the transport input command.
8	How does Spanning Tree Protocol aid network architecture? allows for redundant links by eliminating loops provides greater scalability by eliminating collisions reduces switch processor load by reducing broadcast traffic on trunk links reduces administrative overhead by sharing VLAN databases between switches across the network

9	Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 3. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host? 192.168.1.22 /28 192.168.1.31 /28 192.168.1.32 /28 192.168.1.52 /28 192.168.1.63 /28
10	In setting up a wireless infrastructure network, which device is used to associate a client computer to the network? an Ethernet switch a wireless access point another wireless computer a hard-wired computer on the network

11	Which statement about STP network diameter is correct? STP diameters are restricted by convergence times. Layer 2 root elections should be optimized by adjusting BPDU timers to match network diameter. Using lower bandwidth connections between switches will allow STP to have a larger network diameter. Portfast can be used to increase the allowable switched network diameter because it disables the forward delay and maximum age timers.
12	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with hosts in the same VLAN that are connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem? Introduce a Layer 3 device in the topology. Configure both switches in VTP transparent mode to allow them to share VLAN information. Reconfigure the fa0/1 interface on switch SW1 with a static trunk configuration. Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to FastEthernet 0/1 on SW1 and FastEthernet 0/2 on SW2.

13	Refer to the exhibit. What would happen if the network administrator moved the network cable of Host A from interface Fa0/1 to Fa0/3 on switch SW1? Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the router is routing traffic between VLANs. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, because port Fa0/3 has been manually assigned to VLAN 30. Host A remains a member of VLAN 10, because the switch provides dynamic VLAN assignment for the port. Host A maintains connectivity to all members of VLAN 10, because it is connected to the same physical network. Host A is no longer a member of VLAN 10, but because port Fa0/3 was unused, it is now a member of VLAN 1.
14	Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.) After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked. Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist. The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision. Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media. If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.

15	What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.) Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment. The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch. The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs. Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router. The router should be configured as the VTP server.

16	Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is properly configured for router on a stick inter-VLAN routing, but PC1 is unable to ping PC2. What needs to be done to resolve the problem? Rename VLAN1. Connect one more port of S1 to R1. Configure the Fa0/1 port of S1 as a trunk port. Move the Fa0/0 interface of R1 to another VLAN.
17	Refer to the exhibit. If switch SW1 is configured with the four VLANs as shown in the exhibit, how many physical interfaces are needed on router R1 to configure inter-VLAN routing using subinterfaces? zero one two four

18	Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet? The router will drop the packet. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
19	Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown? This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator. When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port. Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18. The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.

20	Which parameter is associated with wireless authentication? shared key SSID ad hoc channel
21	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal? all hosts that are shown only hosts B and C only hosts A, B, and C only hosts A, B, C, and D only hosts A, D, E, and F only hosts D, E, and F

22	What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN? Connect each PC directly to a router port. Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network. Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches. Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
23	Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit have VTP pruning enabled. Which VLAN(s) will be allowed on the trunk to SW2 by SW4? VLAN 20 only VLAN 10 and VLAN 30 VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 VLAN 1, VLAN 20 and VLANs 1002 through 1005

24	What is the correct order in which the STP components are chosen? designated ports, nondesignated ports, root bridge, root ports nondesignated ports, designated ports, root ports, root bridge root bridge, root ports, designated ports, nondesignated ports root ports, root bridge, nondesignated ports, designated ports
25	Refer to the exhibit. Hosts PC_A and PC_B send traffic simultaneously, and the frames from the transmitting stations collide. What is the last device to receive the collision? hub HB1 switch SW1 router R1 switch SW2 router R2 switch SW4

26	Refer to the exhibit. What three statements describe why Host1 and Host2 are unable to communicate? (Choose three.) The switch ports are on different VLANs. The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet. The hosts are configured on different logical networks. A router is required to forward traffic between Host1 and Host2. The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN. The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network.
27	Which statement is correct about STP architecture? Spanning Tree Protocol will guarantee a loop free Layer 2 topology. Spanning Tree Protocol guarantees the shortest path to destination networks. The switch with the highest priority will be assigned the lowest BID in the root election. The first step in the spanning-tree election process is to determine the root port. To select designated ports, the spanning-tree algorithm must determine the longest contiguous path from the root bridge.

28	While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide? This allows the switch to host web pages for the network. This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet. This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch. This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.
29	What are two benefits of the IEEE 802.11n standard over the IEEE 802.11G? (Choose two.) requires less equipment provides improved range permits increased data rates has a single-input and a single-output needs no hardware upgrade for compatibility

30

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to allow both SSH and Telnet connections to Switch1. However, the SSH connections fail. What is the most likely cause of this problem? The RSA key has been removed. SSH has been configured on the wrong line. The transport input command is applied incorrectly. The domain name has been configured in the wrong configuration mode.

31	Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem? SW1(config)# vtp version 1 SW2(config)# vtp mode client SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1 SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent
32	Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management, and troubleshooting? user EXEC mode privileged EXEC mode global configuration mode interface configuration mode

33	Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem? Relocate the APs closer to each other. Increase the distance between the clients. Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11. Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
34	A switch that is using port-based memory buffering receives two incoming frames on the same port. The destination port for the first frame that is received is busy. How will the switch handle the second frame that it received? The second frame will have to wait to be delivered even if its destination port is available. The second frame will be delivered to the memory buffer for its destination port. The second frame will be placed in a common memory buffer to await delivery. The second frame will be dropped.

35	Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2. Hosts A, B, C, and D are correctly configured with IP addresses in the subnet range for VLAN 50. Host A can communicate with host B, but cannot communicate with host C or host D. What is the cause of this problem? There is a native VLAN mismatch. The Fa0/11 interface of Switch1 is not configured as a trunk. The link between Switch1 and Switch2 is up but not trunked. VLAN 50 is not allowed on the trunk link between Switch1 and Switch2.
36	Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem? All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2. SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain. VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1. The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.

37	Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem? The command contained a syntax error. The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer. The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch. The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.
38	Refer to the exhibit. Which two options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose two.) Routing between the 192.168.1.0 and 192.168.3.0 networks will not succeed until a routing protocol is configured on the router. VLANs have not been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces. The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design. Trunking has been appropriately configured on the router subinterfaces. An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.

39	Refer to the exhibit. After entering the commands in the exhibit, the administrator receives a "password required, but none set" message when attempting to connect to S1. What is the problem? The enable secret password was not set. S1 does not have login configured on the vty lines. S1 does not have a password configured for the vty lines. The crypto key is not properly configured to generate passwords. The VLAN1 interface has not be enabled with the no shutdown command.
40	Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has segmented the network into two VLANs and configured R1 and S1 as displayed. However, PC1 is unable to access PC2. What is the likely problem? No routing protocol is configured on R1. The Fa0/1 port of S1 is not a trunk port. The default gateway address is not set on S1. Only one physical link between S1 and R1 is configured for inter-VLAN routing.

41	Refer to the exhibit. The Layer 2 switching design that is shown has been implemented in a campus environment that is using Spanning Tree Protocol. All inter-switch links that are shown are trunks. Whenever an inter-switch link fails, the network takes nearly a minute to completely converge. How can the convergence time be reduced? Increase the capacity of the distribution and core trunk links to 10 Gb/s. Add a trunk link that directly connects D1 and D2. Use Layer 3 switching on the core switch. Implement Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol.
42	Refer to the exhibit. What are two reasons for the Fa0/24 port being placed in the blocking state? (Choose two.) This switch is not the root bridge. The Fa0/24 port is administratively down. STP has detected links that create a loop. There is a change in the VTP configuration. The Fa0/24 port is overloaded with too much traffic for its configured bandwidth.

43	Which three actions are performed during the boot sequence of a Cisco switch? (Choose three.) The boot loader uses the self-contained switch operating system to boot the switch. The boot loader retrieves diagnostics routines via TFTP. The boot loader performs POST. The boot loader is loaded from RAM. The boot loader initializes the flash file system that is used to boot the system. The boot loader loads the default operating system if the flash-based operating system is corrupt or missing.
44	Which combination is required to establish a connection to initially configure the Linksys WRT300N wireless access device? a computer with a console connection to the WRT300N a computer with a wireless connection to the WRT300N a computer with an AUX port connection to the WRT300N a computer configured in the same IP subnet as the WRT300N and a direct cable connection to it

45	Refer to the exhibit. RTB is configured for traditional inter-VLAN routing. RTB can ping computer A but cannot ping computer B. What is a possible cause of this failure? Port Fa0/11 is in the wrong VLAN. RTB does not have an active routing protocol. The IP address of computer B is in the wrong logical network. Router interface Fa0/1 has the wrong trunk encapsulation type configured.

46	In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements? client root server transparent
47	Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 has been newly purchased and added to the network. What configuration should be applied to SW2 so that it participates in the same VTP domain as switch SW1, receives VLAN information from SW1, and synchronizes VLAN information? Disable VTP pruning on SW2. Configure SW2 in VTP transparent mode. Configure SW2 with the VTP domain password. Configure SW2 as a VTP server with a higher revision number.

48	Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router? WEP identifies the wireless LAN. WEP allows the access point to inform clients of its presence. WEP translates IP addresses into easy-to-remember domain names. WEP encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point. WEP ensures that only authenticated users are allowed access to the WLAN. WEP translates an internal address or group of addresses into an outside, public address.
49	Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y? QoS routing trunking VPN

50	Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with the default bridge priority. Which port will act as a non-designated port if all links are operating at the same bandwidth? Fa0/1 interface of switch A Fa0/2 interface of switch A Fa0/1 interface of switch B Fa0/2 interface of switch B Fa0/1 interface of switch C Fa0/2 interface of switch C
51	What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks? DSSS OFDM SSID WPA

52

Refer to the exhibit. Computer D sends a broadcast message. Which devices will process the broadcast message? computer E computer D and computer E computer D, computer E, and Router1 computer B and computer E computer B, computer E, and Router1 computer C, computer D, and computer E computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1 computer A, computer B, computer C, computer D, computer E, and Router1

CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 8 (100%)

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1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

data link

2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.


3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)

information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)

Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?

network analyzer

7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?

192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7

8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?

Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?

baselining tool

10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)

interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)

A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?

The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.

13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?

determining ownership

14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)

transport layer
application layer

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

physical

16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?

bottom up

17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)

The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?

application

20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?

data link

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 6 (100%)

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1. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.

2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?

Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.


3. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?

The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

4. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?

The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?

Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.

6. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?

a network with a limited number of VLANs

7. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:

Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.

Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?

The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?

R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.

9. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?

When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.

10. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

11. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)

The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
The command configures a subinterface.

12. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?

Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)

This design will not scale easily.
This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?

S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.

15. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?

Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.

16. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?

Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

18. Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.

19. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?

The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.

20. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)

fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 5 (100%)

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1. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)

shared
edge-type
point-to-point

2. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?

designated

3. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?

Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.


4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?

The priority was statically configured to identify the root.

5. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)

Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

6. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?

election of the root bridge

7. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)

Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

8. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)

one root bridge per network
one root port per non-root bridge

9. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?

STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?

Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.

11. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)

to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

12. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)

They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.

13. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)

immediately loses its edge status
becomes a normal spanning-tree port

14. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)

PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?

Gi0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.

16. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)

the max-age timer
the forward delay

17. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?

learning

18. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?

VLAN ID

19. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?

Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.

20. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)

bridge priority
base MAC address

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 4 (100%)

http://www.ccna4u.net

1. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

2.
What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)

unable to add VLANs
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain


3. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)

domain name
domain password
version number

4. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?

It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.

5. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?

VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
http://www.ccna4u.net/
6. Refer to the exhibit. S2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to S2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After S2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What will solve the problem?

Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they propagate throughout the network.

7. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)

Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.

8. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?

A five-minute update timer has elapsed.

9. What statement describes the default propagation of VLANs on a trunked link?

all VLANs

10. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?

SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.

11. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?

The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the provided command output, what could be done to correct the problem?

The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches that are shown in the exhibit. What are two possible explanations for this? (Choose two.)

Switch1 is in a different management domain.
Switch1 is using VTP version 1, and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.

14. How are VTP messages sent between switches in a domain?

Layer 2 multicast

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)

If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.

16. Which two statements are true about VTP pruning? (Choose two.)

Pruning can only be configured on VTP servers.
Pruning will prevent unnecessary flooding of broadcasts across trunks.

17. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?

It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.

18. A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?

Change the VTP domain name.

19. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)

Switches must be connected via trunks.
The VTP domain name is case sensitive.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be on S2?

S2 will retain the VLANs as of the latest known revision, but will lose the VLANs if it is reloaded.