CCNA v4 - E4 - Module 8 (100%)

www.ccna4u.net || www.ccna4u.info || www.ccna4u.org || www.9tut.info

1. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?

data link

2. Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)

Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.


3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?

incorrect clock rate

4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)

information about the network design
expected performance under normal operating conditions

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)

Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

6. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?

network analyzer

7. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?

192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7

8. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?

Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3

9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?

baselining tool

10. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)

interface identifiers
DLCI for virtual circuits

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)

A carrier detect signal is present.
Keepalives are being received successfully.
The LCP negotiation phase is complete.

12. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?

The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.

13. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?

determining ownership

14. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)

transport layer
application layer

15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?

physical

16. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?

bottom up

17. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)

The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.

18. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)

Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?

application

20. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?

data link

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 6 (100%)

www.ccna4u.net || www.ccna4u.info || www.ccna4u.org || www.9tut.info

1. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be drawn from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)

Both of the directly connected routes that are shown will share the same physical interface of the router.
Inter-VLAN routing between hosts on the 172.17.10.0/24 and 172.17.30.0/24 networks is successful on this network.

2. A router has two FastEthernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can this be accomplished using the fewest number of physical interfaces without unnecessarily decreasing network performance?

Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.


3. What is important to consider while configuring the subinterfaces of a router when implementing inter-VLAN routing?

The IP address of each subinterface must be the default gateway address for each VLAN subnet.

4. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 has attempted to ping PC2 but has been unsuccessful. What could account for this failure?

The encapsulation command on the R1 F0/0.3 interface is incorrect.

5. What distinguishes traditional routing from router-on-a-stick?

Traditional routing uses one port per logical network. Router-on-a-stick uses subinterfaces to connect multiple logical networks to a single router port.

6. In which situation could individual router physical interfaces be used for InterVLAN routing, instead of a router-on-a-stick configuration?

a network with a limited number of VLANs

7. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is correctly configured for the VLANs that are displayed in the graphic. The configuration that is shown was applied to RTA to allow for interVLAN connectivity between hosts attached to Switch1. After testing the network, the administrator logged the following report:

Hosts within each VLAN can communicate with each other.
Hosts in VLAN5 and VLAN33 are able to communicate with each other.
Hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 do not have connectivity to host in other VLANs.

Why are hosts connected to Fa0/1 through Fa0/5 unable to communicate with hosts in different VLANs?

The router was not configured to forward traffic for VLAN2.

8. Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/0 on router R1 is connected to port Fa0/1 on switch S1. After the commands shown are entered on both devices, the network administrator determines that the devices on VLAN 2 are unable to ping the devices on VLAN 1. What is the likely problem?

R1 is configured for router-on-a-stick, but S1 is not configured for trunking.

9. Which statement is true about ARP when inter-VLAN routing is being used on the network?

When router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing is in use, the router returns the MAC address of the physical interface in response to ARP requests.

10. Which three elements must be used when configuring a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
one subinterface per VLAN
one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
a compatible trunking protocol encapsulation for each subinterface

11. Which two statements are true about the interface fa0/0.10 command? (Choose two.)

The command is used in the configuration of router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing.
The command configures a subinterface.

12. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator correctly configures RTA to perform inter-VLAN routing. The administrator connects RTA to port 0/4 on SW2, but inter-VLAN routing does not work. What could be the possible cause of the problem with the SW2 configuration?

Port 0/4 is configured in access mode.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the network design shown in the exhibit? (Choose three.)

This design will not scale easily.
This design uses more switch and router ports than are necessary.
If the physical interfaces between the switch and router are operational, the devices on the different VLANs can communicate through the router.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All devices are configured as shown in the exhibit. PC2 can successfully ping the F0/0 interface on R1. PC2 cannot ping PC1. What might be the reason for this failure?

S1 interface F0/8 is in the wrong VLAN.

15. Devices on the network are connected to a 24-port Layer 2 switch that is configured with VLANs. Switch ports 0/2 to 0/4 are assigned to VLAN 10. Ports 0/5 to 0/8 are assigned to VLAN 20, and ports 0/9 to 0/12 are assigned to VLAN 30. All other ports are assigned to the default VLAN. Which solution allows all VLANs to communicate between each other while minimizing the number of ports necessary to connect the VLANs?

Add a router to the topology and configure one FastEthernet interface on the router with multiple subinterfaces for VLANs 1, 10, 20, and 30.

16. What are the steps which must be completed in order to enable inter-VLAN routing using router-on-a-stick?

Create the VLANs on the switch to include port membership assignment and configure subinterfaces on the router matching the VLANs.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the operation of the subinterfaces? (Choose two.)
Incoming traffic that has a VLAN ID of 2 is processed by subinterface fa0/0.2.
Traffic inbound on this router is processed by different subinterfaces, depending on the VLAN from which the traffic originated.

18. Refer to the exhibit. The commands for a router to connect to a trunked uplink are shown in the exhibit. A packet is received from IP address 192.168.1.54. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.120. What will the router do with this packet?

The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 tagged for VLAN 60.

19. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is routing between networks 192.168.10.0/28 and 192.168.30.0/28. PC1 can ping R1 interface F0/1, but cannot ping PC3. What is causing this failure?

The PC3 network address configuration is incorrect.

20. What two statements are true regarding the use of subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose two.)

fewer router ports required than in traditional inter-VLAN routing
less complex physical connection than in traditional inter-VLAN routing

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 5 (100%)

http://www.ccna4u.net

1. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)

shared
edge-type
point-to-point

2. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?

designated

3. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?

Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.


4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown?

The priority was statically configured to identify the root.

5. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)

Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.

6. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?

election of the root bridge

7. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)

Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
Non-root switches each have only one root port.

8. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)

one root bridge per network
one root port per non-root bridge

9. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?

STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?

Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.

11. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)

to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree

12. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)

They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.

13. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)

immediately loses its edge status
becomes a normal spanning-tree port

14. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)

PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?

Gi0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.

16. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)

the max-age timer
the forward delay

17. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?

learning

18. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?

VLAN ID

19. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network?

Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.

20. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)

bridge priority
base MAC address

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 4 (100%)

http://www.ccna4u.net

1. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs?

VTP dynamically communicates VLAN changes to all switches in the same VTP domain.

2.
What are two features of VTP client mode operation? (Choose two.)

unable to add VLANs
can forward VLAN information to other switches in the same VTP domain


3. Which three VTP parameters must be identical on all switches to participate in the same VTP domain? (Choose three.)

domain name
domain password
version number

4. What does a client mode switch in a VTP management domain do when it receives a summary advertisement with a revision number higher than its current revision number?

It issues an advertisement request for new VLAN information.

5. Refer to the exhibit. The switches in the exhibit are connected with trunks within the same VTP management domain. Each switch is labeled with its VTP mode. A new VLAN is added to Switch3. This VLAN does not show up on the other switches. What is the reason for this?

VLANs created on transparent mode switches are not included in VTP advertisements.
http://www.ccna4u.net/
6. Refer to the exhibit. S2 was previously used in a lab environment and has been added to the production network in server mode. The lab and production networks use the same VTP domain name, so the network administrator made no configuration changes to S2 before adding it to the production network. The lab domain has a higher revision number. After S2 was added to the production network, many computers lost network connectivity. What will solve the problem?

Re-enter all appropriate VLANs, except VLAN 1, manually on Switch1 so that they propagate throughout the network.

7. Which two statements describe VTP transparent mode operation? (Choose two.)

Transparent mode switches can add VLANs of local significance only.
Transparent mode switches pass any VLAN management information that they receive to other switches.

8. What causes a VTP configured switch to issue a summary advertisement?

A five-minute update timer has elapsed.

9. What statement describes the default propagation of VLANs on a trunked link?

all VLANs

10. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the VTP domain are new. Switch SW1 is configured as a VTP server, switches SW2 and SW4 are configured as VTP clients, and switch SW3 is configured in VTP transparent mode. Which switch or switches receive VTP updates and synchronize their VLAN configuration based on those updates?

SW3 and SW4 receive updates, but only switch SW4 synchronizes VLAN information.

11. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network participate in the same VTP domain. What happens when the new switch SW2 with a default configuration and revision number of 0 is inserted in the existing VTP domain Lab_Network?

The switch operates as a VTP server, but does not impact the existing VLAN configuration in the domain.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Switches SW1 and SW2 are interconnected via a trunk link but failed to exchange VLAN information. The network administrator issued the show vtp status command to troubleshoot the problem. On the basis of the provided command output, what could be done to correct the problem?

The switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Switch1 is not participating in the VTP management process with the other switches that are shown in the exhibit. What are two possible explanations for this? (Choose two.)

Switch1 is in a different management domain.
Switch1 is using VTP version 1, and Switch2 is using VTP version 2.

14. How are VTP messages sent between switches in a domain?

Layer 2 multicast

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be confirmed by this output? (Choose two.)

If this switch is added to an established network, the other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain will consider their own VLAN information to be more recent than the VLAN information advertised by this switch.
This switch shows no configuration revision errors.
This switch is configured to advertise its VLAN configuration to other VTP-enabled switches in the same VTP domain.

16. Which two statements are true about VTP pruning? (Choose two.)

Pruning can only be configured on VTP servers.
Pruning will prevent unnecessary flooding of broadcasts across trunks.

17. Refer to the exhibit. What information can be learned from the output provided?

It verifies VTP advertisements are being exchanged.

18. A network administrator is replacing a failed switch with a switch that was previously on the network. What precautionary step should the administrator take on the replacement switch to avoid incorrect VLAN information from propagating through the network?

Change the VTP domain name.

19. Which two statements are true about the implementation of VTP? (Choose two.)

Switches must be connected via trunks.
The VTP domain name is case sensitive.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Switch S1 is in VTP server mode. Switches S2 and S3 are in client mode. An administrator accidentally disconnects the cable from F0/1 on S2. What will the effect be on S2?

S2 will retain the VLANs as of the latest known revision, but will lose the VLANs if it is reloaded.

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 3 (100%)

http://www.ccna4u.net

1. What switch port modes will allow a switch to successfully form a trunking link if the neighboring switch port is in "dynamic desirable" mode?

on, auto, or dynamic desirable mode

2. Refer to the exhibit. Computer 1 sends a frame to computer 4. On which links along the path between computer 1 and computer 4 will a VLAN ID tag be included with the frame?

C, E

3. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited configurations do not allow the switches to form a trunk. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

The trunk cannot be negotiated with both ends set to auto.

4. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.

5. Which two statements describe the benefits of VLANs? (Choose two.)

VLANs improve network security by isolating users that have access to sensitive data and applications.
VLANs divide a network into smaller logical networks, resulting in lower susceptibility to broadcast storms..

6. What happens to the member ports of a VLAN when the VLAN is deleted?

The ports cannot communicate with other ports.

7. What is a valid consideration for planning VLAN traffic across multiple switches?

A trunk connection is affected by broadcast storms on any particular VLAN that is carried by that trunk.

8. What statement about the 802.1q trunking protocol is true?

802.1q will not perform operations on frames that are forwarded out access ports.

9. Switch port fa0/1 was manually configured as a trunk, but now it will be used to connect a host to the network. How should the network administrator reconfigure switch port Fa0/1?

Enter the switchport mode access command in interface configuration mode.

10. What statements describe how hosts on VLANs communicate?

Hosts on different VLANs communicate through routers.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Computer B is unable to communicate with computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

Computer D does not have a proper address for the VLAN 3 address space.

12. Refer to the exhibit. SW1 and SW2 are new switches being installed in the topology shown in the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 on switch SW1 has been configured with trunk mode “on”. Which statement is true about forming a trunk link between the switches SW1 and SW2?

Interface Fa0/2 on switch SW2 will negotiate to become a trunk link if it supports DTP.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning interface Fa0/5?

Trunking can occur with non-Cisco switches.

14. Refer to the exhibit. How far is a broadcast frame that is sent by computer A propagated in the LAN domain?

computer D, computer G

15. What are two characteristics of VLAN1 in a default switch configuration? (Choose two.)

VLAN 1 is the management VLAN.
All switch ports are members of VLAN1.

16. The network administrator wants to separate hosts in Building A into two VLANs numbered 20 and 30. Which two statements are true concerning VLAN configuration? (Choose two.)

The VLANs may be named.
The network administrator may create the VLANs in either global configuration mode or VLAN database mode.

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has just added VLAN 50 to Switch1 and Switch2 and assigned hosts on the IP addresses of the VLAN in the 10.1.50.0/24 subnet range. Computer A can communicate with computer B, but not with computer C or computer D. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

VLAN 50 is not allowed to entering the trunk between Switch1 and Switch2.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn regarding the switch that produced the output shown? (Choose two.)

The command switchport access vlan 20 was entered in interface configuration mode for Fast Ethernet interface 0/1.
Devices attached to ports fa0/5 through fa0/8 cannot communicate with devices attached to ports fa0/9 through fa0/12 without the use of a Layer 3 device.
19. A network administrator is removing several VLANs from a switch. When the administrator enters the no vlan 1 command, an error is received. Why did this command generate an error?

VLAN 1 can never be deleted.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Company HR is adding PC4, a specialized application workstation, to a new company office. The company will add a switch, S3, connected via a trunk link to S2, another switch. For security reasons the new PC will reside in the HR VLAN, VLAN 10. The new office will use the 172.17.11.0/24 subnet. After installation, the existing PCs are unable to access shares on PC4. What is the likely cause?

PC4 must use the same subnet as the other HR VLAN PCs.

21. What is the effect of the switchport mode dynamic desirable command?

A trunk link is formed if the remote connected device is configured with the switchport mode dynamic auto or switchport mode trunk commands.

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 2 (100%)

http://www.ccna4u.net

1. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)

Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

2. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?

global configuration mode

3. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)

The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.

4. Where is the startup configuration stored?

NVRAM

5. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?

SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?

hosts A, B, and C

7. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)

Change passwords regularly.
Turn off unnecessary services.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

No collisions will occur on this link.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is "cisco." What can be determined from the output shown?

Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.

10. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with "% Incomplete command". The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?

append a space and then ? to the last parameter

11. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?

Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.

12. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

13. Which statement is true about the command banner login "Authorized personnel Only" issued on a switch?

The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.

14. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.

15.
If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?

Switch1(config-line)# line console 0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)# login

to secure the console port with the password "cisco"

16. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?

The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.

17. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?

2

18. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator’s attempts to connect to Switch1 via Secure Shell are failing. What is most likely the problem?

vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

19. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.

20. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?

workstation C

CCNA v4 - E3 - Module 1 (100%) => latest version

http://www.ccna4u.net


1. A network administrator is selecting a switch that will operate at the network core. Which three features should the switch support for optimum network performance and reliability? (Choose three.)

10 Gigabit Ethernet
quality of service (QoS)
hot-swappable hardware

2. Refer to the exhibit. Beginning with HR servers and workstations, a network engineer is designing a new security structure for the network. Which set of policies adheres to the hierarchical network model design principles?

Configure port security options on S1. Use Layer 3 access control features on D1 and D2 to limit access to the HR servers to just the HR subnet.

3. Which layer of the OSI model does an access layer LAN switch use to make a forwarding decision?

Layer 2

4. What is the likely impact of moving a conventional company architecture to a completely converged network?

A shared infrastructure is created resulting in a single network to manage.

5. Configuring communication between devices on different VLANs requires the use of which layer of the OSI model?

Layer 3

6. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is refered to as the high-speed backbone of the internetwork, where high availability and redundancy are critical?

core layer

7. Which hierarchical design characteristic would be recommended at both the core and distribution layers to protect the network in the case of a route failure?

redundancy

8. Which layer of the hierarchical design model provides a means of connecting devices to the network and controlling which devices are allowed to communicate on the network?

access

9. At which heirarchical layer are switches normally not required to process all ports at wire speed?

access layer

10. Which two characteristics are associated with enterprise level switches? (Choose two.)

high forwarding rate
support link aggregation

11. For organizations that are implementing a voice over IP solution, what functionality should be enabled at all three layers of the hierarchical network?

quality of service

12. Which hierarchical design model layer controls the flow of network traffic using policies and delineates broadcast domains by performing routing functions between virtual LANs (VLANs)?

distribution

13. Link aggregation should be implemented at which layer of the hierarchical network?

access, distribution, and core

14. Which feature supports higher throughput in switched networks by combining multiple switch ports?

link aggregation

15. What statement best describes a modular switch?

flexible characteristics

16. Which two features are supported at all three levels of the Cisco three-layer hierarchical model? (Choose two.)

Quality of Service
link aggregation

17. A network technician is asked to examine an existing switched network. Following this examination, the technician makes recommendations for adding new switches where needed and replacing existing equipment that hampers performance. The technician is given a budget and asked to proceed. Which two pieces of information would be helpful in determining necessary port density for new switches? (Choose two.)

traffic flow analysis
expected future growth

18. Which three features are commonly supported at the distribution layer of the Cisco hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)
security policies
quality of service
Layer 3 functionality

19. A technician is attempting to explain Cisco StackWise technology to a client that is setting up three stackable switches. Which explanation accurately describes StackWise technology?

StackWise technology allows up to nine switches to be interconnected via the use of a fully redundant backplane.

20. Refer to the exhibit. What characteristic of hierarchical network designs is exhibited by having SW3 connected to both SW1 and Sw2?

redundancy

CONFIGURING STATIC ROUTING RIP IGRP OSPF ON CISCO ROUTER

CCNA lab

CCNA Certification

The Cisco CCNA network associate certification validates the ability to install, configure, operate, and troubleshoot medium-size routed and switched networks, including implementation and verification of connections to remote sites in a WAN. This new curriculum includes basic mitigation of security threats, introduction to wireless networking concepts and terminology, and performance-based skills. This new curriculum also includes (but is not limited to) the use of these protocols: IP, Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP), Serial Line Interface Protocol Frame Relay, Routing Information Protocol Version 2 (RIPv2),VLANs, Ethernet, access control lists (ACLs)

    * 1 Console Login
    * 2 Router Configuration
    * 3 Examine the Router
    * 4 Copy to a TFTP server
    * 5 Copy from TFTP server
    * 6a Clear the backup config
    * 6b Saving the backup configuration
    * 7 Copy to NVRAM
    * 8 Initial router configuration
    * 9 Initial Switch Configuration
    * 10 RIP routing
    * 11 IGRP routing
    * 12 Create Accesslist
    * 13 IPX Access List Security
    * 14 IPX router configuration
    * 15 IPX SAP filtering
    * 16 Limitting VTY address
    * 17 Load 2600 OS
    * 18 Navigating the IOS
    * 19 Password recovery
    * 20 Telnet to a remote Router